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15 answers

The husband's Fault. He cheated . The wife should have been told then she could have the opportunity to make the choice .

2007-02-05 09:36:04 · answer #1 · answered by Sugar 7 · 0 0

If the husband is aware that he has AIDS, then he shouldn't have sex with his wife (regardless of how he got it).

If the husband is not aware that he has AIDS but he sleeps with other women habitually, then he is still at fault. He should know that there is a risk of acquiring AIDS though his lifestyle.

If the husband acquires AIDS through no fault of his own (say, blood transfusion) & is unaware of it, then that's not his fault. But if he's aware of it, then he's obviously responsible.

2007-02-05 13:52:10 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

You have not given us all the information to determine what is going on? How did the husband have AIDS/HIV? Did he get it from an affair or from a blood transfusion? Those are big details. If it was from an affair then he is at fault. If it is from a blood transfusion, then the blood supplier is at fault and the husband and wife are not to blame.

2007-02-05 09:34:18 · answer #3 · answered by A.Mercer 7 · 0 0

If the husband didn't have AIDS before and got it from having sex with someone other than his wife than it's his fault.

If he got it say from a tainted blood transfusion, then it's really no .ones fault

2007-02-05 09:34:39 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

the husband's... If he got it from an affair or not he still gave it to her... and since when does anyone use protection to have sex with their husband??? or wife??? Hello? you are supposed to be faithful and trust and protect each other.... even if he didn't know.... he still gave it to her so it's still his fault that she has it....

2007-02-05 09:50:23 · answer #5 · answered by andrealisset 1 · 0 0

the husband must have had it before having sex with the wife

2007-02-05 09:36:21 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

the woman or man that the husband slept with to get the AIDs virus in the first place

2007-02-05 09:34:42 · answer #7 · answered by aslgirl143 2 · 0 1

Depends on who slept with the guy before he slept with his wife. That is why they ask you who all your recent partners are. That way they can try to distinguish where it originated from.

2007-02-06 15:00:58 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Both, because the guy should have told the lady, but the lady should have asked before.

2007-02-05 09:34:37 · answer #9 · answered by Judy 5 · 0 0

husband if he was aware, US goverment if he wasn't
The guy above me,when do you ask a partner if they have HIV? before you have sex? or on the first date?

2007-02-05 09:34:38 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

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