What I don't get is if polygamy is illegal then wouldn't every other marriage other then the first one be invalid? Therefore technically the others wouldn't be legal marriages anyway.So how could they charge you with the crime of polygamy if you were only legally married to one person?
2007-02-05 07:08:30 · 4 answers · asked by charlie_the_carpenter 5 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
I know what polygamy is!
2007-02-05 07:47:10 · update #1
Polygamy is the practice of having more than one wife at a time. In such a marriage (legal and encouraged in many parts of the world) the wives all know each other and everyone helps with the children and the housework and the farming and so on.
Bigamy is the crime of being married to more than one woman at a time where monogamy (one wife) is the only legal form of marriage.
2007-02-05 07:21:08 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 4⤋
Polygamy is being married (state recognized) to multiple people at the same time. Divorces are cases when the state no longer recognizes one marriages first. That way, you only have 1 set of in-laws to put up with at a time.
2007-02-05 15:15:07 · answer #2 · answered by This Is Not Honor 4 · 2⤊ 3⤋
You're arguing in circles. Yes, the marriages after the first one are all invalid, but the polygamist is penalized for having gone thru the marriages anyway. It's a form of fraud. Contracts made by fraud can be invalid, but the fraud will be punished anyway.
2007-02-05 15:36:32 · answer #3 · answered by AnOrdinaryGuy 5 · 4⤊ 1⤋
Dunno but I thought Polygamy was a synthetic fiber. Turns out its more than one wife. whoda thot dat?
2007-02-05 15:13:24 · answer #4 · answered by Tom W 6 · 0⤊ 7⤋