do you prove 2=3?

Answer 1

No, u can't prove that any number equal any other number, because they're not equal. Sometimes u can get a false proof, such as this.

a=b multiply by a
a^2=ab, subtract b^2
a*2-b^2=ab-b^2
(a+b)(a-b)= b(a-b) divide both sides by (a-b)
a+b=b, and since a=b
a+a=a
2a=a
2=1?

i can change this a little to prove 2=3
a+a=a, add a to both sides
a+a+a=a+a
3a=2a
3=2

my calculus math teacher showed me this. The reason why u seemingly get a proof of 1=2 or 2=3, is that, look back to step 4. there you divide by a-b. But since a=b, this is really a-a or 0. You can never divide by zero. It's because u divide by zero that you get a false answer.

Answer 2

2=1=3 or more

Answer 3

see
according to Arethmatic if 2 = 3 ,
than , if we multiply by a constant on both the sides than th eratios OR the number will remain same
SO multiplying by 2 on both the side ,
i.e. 2*2 = 3*2
i.e. 4 = 6
But it should be 2=2 or 3=3 or 4=4 or 5=5 or 6=6
BUT it is neither of above so we can conclude that 2 is not= 3

Answer 4

Im not quite sure what the question is.
-If it was a "logical" statement then 2 does not equal 3 so that statement is false.
-If it was a statement which has another meaning (look at comment below) then the question needs to be more specific
-If the question is simply do you prove 2=3? then the answer is No.

Answer 5

Yes, I surely can.

We know that,
-6 = -6
i.e., 4 - 10 = 9 - 15
i.e., 4 - 10 + (25/4) = 9 - 15 + (25/4)
i.e., 2^2 - 2*2*(5/2) + (5/2)^2 = 3^2 - 2*3*(5/2) + (5/2)^2
i.e., (2 - 5/2)^2 = (3 - 5/2)^2
i.e., 2 - 5/2 = 3 - 5/2
i.e., 2 = 3

But it is obvious that there must be some error in the process depicted, 'coz we know that 2 can never be equal to 3. So, try to figure out the mistake in the prcess. Let me know when you've successfully figured it out.

Answer 6

because 3=2 thats why 2=3

Answer 7

2=3

sol':
1st: multiply both side by 4
2*4 = 3*4
8 = 12
2nd: subtract both side by 10
8-10 = 12-10
-2 = 2
3rd: square both side
(-2)^2 = (2)^2
4=4
therefore, 2 is equals to 3.....

Answer 8

1 to the power zero (1^0) = 1 to the power 1(1^1). now since base is same therefore equating the powers,therefore 0=1. now add 2 to both sides.this proves 2=3!!!!

Answer 9

infinity.. = 1/0 or 2/0 or 3/0

so0o0o

infinity = infinity
2/0 = 3/0
or
2 = 3

Answer 10

Logically thinking then how could it be possible??!!
If it is then everyday you give me three rupees and in return I will give you two rupees as in your diary 2=3......GREAT PROFIT !!
but yes if you raised that is you took 0 as the power of index then both answers will come 1.therefore they would become equal !!