2007-02-04 20:54:23 · 9 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
why did england and frace declare war on germany in WW2?
2007-02-04 20:59:20 · update #1
During the months leading up to the war,Britain adopted a policy of appeasement with Germany,allowing Hitler to annex land areas adjacent to Germany and which Hitler claimed had been historically German territories (Austria,the Rhineland and the Sudetenland ).Britain's Prime Minister at the time (Neville Chamberlain) was convinced that this constituted the limits of the Nazi regimes aims and assured the British people that there would be "Peace in our time".
Chamberlain was proved wrong however with the subsequent German invasion of Czechoslovakia and then,in the summer of 1939 the blitzkrieg on Warsaw heralded the German intention to take over Poland on which it could have no such claims whatever.
The British gave Germany a deadline and ultimatum to cease hostilities against Poland or a state of war between the nations would ensue.The ultimatum was ignored and the result was that both Britain and France declared themselves at war with Hitler.
Chamberlain subsequently resigned as a result of his now proven misinterpretation of German intentions and was replaced by Churchill who had until then been a lone voice warning about German ambitions for years.
2007-02-04 21:14:12 · answer #1 · answered by bearbrain 5 · 2⤊ 0⤋
25th August 1939 Britain and Poland agreed a mutual assistance pact.
1st September 1939 Germany invaded Poland.
3rd September 1939 Britain presented Germany with an ultimatum to quite Poland. The ultimatum not being met Britain declared war, forcing the French to follow suite.
2007-02-05 01:50:34 · answer #2 · answered by john b 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Despite England and France warning Germany to stop hostilities against Poland, the Germans who had made a separate peace with the USSR, continued their invasion of Poland and its partition with the USSR to bide both the Germans and Soviets time. On September 3, 1939, they declared war on Germany for violating the appeasement treaty of 1938 before the German occupation of Czechoslovakia.
2007-02-04 23:25:50 · answer #3 · answered by Dave aka Spider Monkey 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
England because Germany invaded Poland after they warned to stop after invading Czech. and Austria.
Did you know the Polish fought German tanks with Cavalry? Brave people.
The French declared war when they were invaded and capitulated in a matter of days. The Germans basically rolled straight into Paris and hoisted the Nazi flag.
But that was ages ago now so we are not allowed to by angry about it. In fact I tell my grandad all the time "Grandad the germans are our friends in europe its not their fault what happened"
He gets very angry and says "Did Hitler press the button to gas the jews, Did hitler bash babies skulls in with the butts of their rifles?" "Do you think a british soldier would ever do these things?"
Silly old man what does he know he'll be dead soon anyway.
2007-02-04 21:01:46 · answer #4 · answered by Bohdisatva 3 · 0⤊ 2⤋
For UK, the invasion of Poland.
2007-02-04 23:27:22 · answer #5 · answered by rosie recipe 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
because of adolf hitler the cruel men on the earth if they start war with they were then brutely defeated
2007-02-04 20:59:02 · answer #6 · answered by anshul 3 · 0⤊ 2⤋
They didn't like Germany ????
2007-02-04 21:02:20 · answer #7 · answered by wombat2u2004 4 · 0⤊ 2⤋
which time, theres been about 5.
2007-02-04 20:56:49 · answer #8 · answered by David B 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
are you talking about ww2 or what, be more specific
2007-02-04 20:56:32 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋