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Some on e explained to me that the above was abrieviated to provide a popular expletive and come from the British campaigns in India and related to a charge against soldiers for fraternising with the locals.
Is this true or do you have another explanation?

2007-02-04 10:22:16 · 6 answers · asked by motomarco9999 2 in Education & Reference Words & Wordplay

6 answers

The word appears in Old English, and probably originates from old Norse, so the explanation given above is just a myth or a joke.

2007-02-04 10:39:32 · answer #1 · answered by Up the pole 2 · 3 2

No, that's not true at all. According to the Oxford English Dictionary, the etymology is completely unknown. It is closely related to the German "ficken," but it has never been proven that the English derived from the German.

It has been used as early as 1503 to mean "to copulate": "DUNBAR _Poems_ lxxv. 13 Be his feiris he wald haue fukkit."

And 1535: "LYNDESAY _Satyre_ 1363 Bischops ... may f.uck thair fill and be vnmaryit."

And it's been used in its capacity as a profane exclamation since the early 20th century: "1922 JOYCE _Ulysses_ 587 God f.uck old Bennett!"

2007-02-04 19:01:06 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

Not true, no.
******* is, when you think about it, rather an important human activity. It's had a name for a long time. Some people find some names for it less tasteful than others, and label them obscene. **** is an example of such a name.

2007-02-04 18:27:20 · answer #3 · answered by Goddess of Grammar 7 · 1 1

This is a myth. Acronyms only really came into common usage during the 20th century and the word **** was seen several hundred years earlier.

2007-02-04 18:44:13 · answer #4 · answered by cdp181c 1 · 1 1

It is also the title of an album by Van Halen from 1991.

2007-02-05 15:55:24 · answer #5 · answered by half asleep 6 · 0 1

Brilliant idea!

I was under the misaprehension that it was Anglo Saxon for taking by force.

2007-02-04 18:34:27 · answer #6 · answered by Modern Major General 7 · 2 1

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