2007-02-04 10:19:12 · 10 answers · asked by willie_wonka_01 2 in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
You sure do...My mom and dad had a house my dad passed away and my mom remarried my mom couldn't sell her house unless her new husband signed off also and he was never put on the deed because they were married even tho his name wasn't on the deed he still had to sign and this is in Michigan
2007-02-04 10:36:53 · answer #1 · answered by Denny O 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If you are married, then you automatically own half the house and don't let him tell you otherwise its the law of the land. Unless you signed a piece of paper waiving all ownership to the house in question. No I wouldnot sign anything you don't want to. If your husband truly loves you, he will make you co-owner by getting the deed change into both of your names. If he doesnot , it doesn't matter because legally you own half anyway. The courts and a lawyer would back you up if it came to that.
2007-02-04 10:28:39 · answer #2 · answered by Bruce 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Prob not if HE BOUGHT it before you were married free and clear.. various state laws are different.. but if it was his before the marriage its usually considered seperate property.. now if you have been helping make HOUSE payments along the way(and no I dont mean utilities and routien maintence etc).. that could be a different story and it could be considered community property..
There are too many variables in this to give an easy answer.. your family law attny for your state would be the one to check with.
2007-02-04 10:27:01 · answer #3 · answered by darchangel_3 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No i do not feel you have to if the house was bought before he married you and the house is just in his name....
2007-02-04 10:33:58 · answer #4 · answered by Lady Hewitt 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If your name is not on the deed, you have nothing to sign. For property transfers, only an owner signs.
2007-02-04 11:48:37 · answer #5 · answered by S. B. 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No you don't it is counted as seprate property he owns the house unless he adds you to the loan by refinancing then it becomes community property.
2007-02-04 10:24:09 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
if he had the house before you got married then it is consider his unless he puts your name on the deed.
2007-02-04 10:31:51 · answer #7 · answered by jumiboo 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
if you're not on the deed to the house then you can't sell it... so no sign
2007-02-04 10:22:48 · answer #8 · answered by iputtheirateinpirate 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, not if you're not on the mortgage papers. This is interesting, why hasn't he put you on it? If something happened to him, you would have to go through probate. For your own protection, please change this. I don't meant to sound doom and gloom, but accidents do happen.
2007-02-04 10:51:39 · answer #9 · answered by ? 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Only if he added your name to the mortgage.
2007-02-04 10:29:55 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋