With cloning the nucleus from a cell is placed inside an egg cell and then implanted for development. You then end up with an identical twin of the person you cloned. (Though the twin is several years younger)
What if, instead of placing a nucleus from a mature cell, one places the DNA from a sperm cell nucleus inside an unfertilized egg cell, and removes the original nucleus from this egg cell. Then you have an unfertilized egg cell with DNA from a sperm cell within it. Can you then fertilize this egg cell with a sperm cell and have a baby that is 50% one man and 50% another man?
2007-02-04 09:39:02 · 5 answers · asked by Brad Pitt 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Biology
The answer is no. This experiment has sort of been done before with mice- basically they created an fertilized egg with two nuclei from two sperm cells, and then they created a fertilized egg with two nuclei from two egg cells. Both failed to develop properly in the womb. Why? we believe it is somehting called genomic imprinting. Basically, what this is is that your genome get imprinted depending on whether those genes came from the father or the mother, and these imprints alter the gene expression of the genes (the imprints seem to be from attachment of methyl groups to cytosine, which normally silences the gene). What would happen when these embroyos with two father genome imprints or two mother genome imprints is that the hormone and antibody levels got messed up, and the embroyo did not develop properly. Imprinting will prevent that from happening.
The other guy has a valid point to, 1/4 of the time the chromosome will be completely wrong. However, in real life the embroyo doesn't even make it that far.
2007-02-08 17:20:03 · answer #1 · answered by kz 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Maybe, I guess. You'd have some trouble, however, because 1/4 of the eggs would be unviable off the bat (XX XY XY YY=lethal). But I think technically what you describe is possible, if super-inefficient.
2007-02-08 16:08:55 · answer #2 · answered by John V 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Possibly, but I suspect not. Or at least not easily. For reasons we don't fully understand, some genes are preferentially expressed if they come from the male vs. female parent.
2007-02-11 22:27:14 · answer #3 · answered by sdc_99 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no that is not at all possible,yet but may be in future
2007-02-10 08:02:11 · answer #4 · answered by monalisa three 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Why not?
2007-02-09 04:27:24 · answer #5 · answered by heyy 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋