2007-02-04 04:35:58 · 19 answers · asked by Juan N 1 in Social Science ➔ Psychology
it depends on if they were blind at birth or blind later in life. we can only dream of what we have experienced. if they have never seen then they dont 'see' in thier dreams either.
2007-02-04 04:38:09 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Everyone dreams (blind people included) and in general, people's dream experience is similar to their waking experience. For those that were blind from birth, they do not have a lot of visual stimuli to draw on for their dreams, so they have dreams that are primarily auditory, tactile or even involve taste and smell. People who lose their sight very early (before age five) apparently experience no visual imagery in their dreams. Visual imagery is a variable for those who lose their sight between ages five and seven. People who lose their sight after age seven almost always have some level of visual imagery present in their dreams. They've done extensive studies and have also found that REM sleep is disturbed in blind people, so they may actually dream less.
2007-02-04 13:06:18 · answer #2 · answered by psychgrad 7 · 4⤊ 0⤋
Yes they do.
It doesn't matter if they were blind at birth or later in life.
Which would you rather be? Blind at birth? Or blind later?
If you were blind later you would have a picture of things...but you would also know what you were missing.
If you were blind at birth. Your imagination would make your world.
It doesn't matter when you turned blind you will have dreams unless that section of the brain was damaged which is rare and highly unlikely.
^.-
Hope that helped.
2007-02-04 12:45:50 · answer #3 · answered by surfergrlchick 1 · 1⤊ 0⤋
If the people were born blind, they have no REM and no visual imagery; the dreams consist of impressions from the other senses -- touch, hearing, smell, and taste. If the people were sighted and then became blind, they have REM (if the eye muscles have not yet atrophied), and their dreams contain visual imagery -- but these visual dreams might cease to occur eventually
2007-02-05 13:12:51 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
It really depends, if they were born blind then they'll dream in sounds. If they've seen things and then have gone blind then they'll more than likely see their dreams, or dream about their memories.
2007-02-04 12:40:08 · answer #5 · answered by Cerantine 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Of course! Blind people see dreams, they can't see but they can dream when they sleep. Its because of our braind who works to create a dream and imagine if you are blind.
2007-02-04 12:45:16 · answer #6 · answered by Nikko 1 · 1⤊ 1⤋
If they were born blind no because they dont know what anything looks like.
2007-02-04 12:38:29 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
They must see something, being that everyone dreams. Maybe it's all dark, but the emotions behind it still come out, just like ours do.
2007-02-04 12:39:43 · answer #8 · answered by Bud's Girl 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes everyone need a dream when sleeping because there is a REM involved.
2007-02-04 13:41:13 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋
of course u don't really see with your eyes in a dream but your sub-conscious makes up images
2007-02-04 12:44:28 · answer #10 · answered by musicman911 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋