Ihave purchased a landed property in chennai India during the year 2001. The seller had given a registered irrevocabel power of attorny to X during the year 1997 for some consideration( the consideration has not been mentioned in the POA) for the same properety. The holder of the POA has sold the same property to Y during the year 2003. It has come to my knowledge only now. The seller is not giving a proper reply. kindly clarify about my stand in this issue whether my purchase\title deed is valid or the sale by the POA after my sale deed executed by the principal is valid .
2007-02-04 01:08:33 · 3 answers · asked by Anonymous in Business & Finance ➔ Renting & Real Estate
sounds like you should see a lawer. this could get styicky. sounds the one that sold it to you had no legal right to sell without the POA holder signing it.
2007-02-04 01:21:00 · answer #1 · answered by iamslydog44 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
What country are you in? Is there a will? If so then what was in it, and were those wishes carried out by the executor. Essentially the power of attorney would have expired with your brother's death, and been subsumed by the last will. If there is no will then he died intestate and the property should have been divided between his legal heirs. I do not believe that step siblings count as legal heirs in the UK, but you really need to talk to A PROBATE LAWYER.
2016-05-24 02:46:18 · answer #2 · answered by Alison 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Call a lawyer for this matter. It sounds like you may have been scammed. Good luck
2007-02-04 01:42:47 · answer #3 · answered by frankie b 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋