2007-02-03 23:06:06 · 7 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities ➔ Theater & Acting
It was set in the year 1050..
2007-02-03 23:10:33 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It was written between 1603 and 1606. The play is set over a few months but the actual King Macbeth ruled 1040-1057. So the play begins in 1040 when Macbeth becomes king of Scotland BUT ends in 1057 when he dies but is set over a few months. So I would say it could be dated to anywhere in the mid 11th century.
2007-02-04 08:09:57 · answer #2 · answered by monkeymanelvis 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Macbeth succeeded Duncan in 1040.
2007-02-04 07:14:34 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
In actual fact, no one is a hundred percent sure at what time macbeth was set. at the moment, im acting in the play, and we are dresses as warriors from the time of around 1030 to 1060. this is the sort of time period that it was set at, but i suppose only shakeseare knows the exact date!!
2007-02-04 10:36:18 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
They play was certainly performed before JamesVI (or first!)-about 1603, and was obviously intended to pander to his pretensions as a continuance of the 'Steward' lineage from Banquo.
Shakespeare's Macbeth bore as much resemblance to the real character as did Mel Gibson's to 'Braveheart'!
2007-02-06 19:12:20 · answer #5 · answered by troothskr 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1984
2007-02-04 07:11:11 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 3⤋
it is set (supposedly) 20 years before the wars with the English erupted.
2007-02-04 07:23:07 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋