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12 answers

Yikes, that's definitely something to think about.
My best guess would be yes, unless there is something between the surface and the center that belongs to the government or companies... oil pipes, sewage pipes, water pipes, and all that stuff. You most likely wouldn't be able to damage or remove those. Otherwise, I don't see why you couldn't use ALL of your land for whatever purpose you want.

2007-02-03 08:52:22 · answer #1 · answered by Koko 4 · 0 1

Not anymore. When you puchase land, you generally do not get the mineral rights for anything under the land. If you are fortunate to find someone who is selling the land and also has the mineral rights, they will usually not sell the mineral rights. If they do, then it usually means there is likely nothing under there of value.

I live in Texas, and very rarely do you see property owners who also have the mineral rights. If they do, it is because they purchased the land a long time ago before different companies went around buying up mineral rights.

My parents have 50% of the mineral rights to the land they own. They are in the works of negotiating a rig on their land. The will get 50% of whatever money is made off the oil that comes out of the ground.

But, like I said, it is rare.

2007-02-03 17:07:55 · answer #2 · answered by ? 5 · 1 0

If I am not mistaken, land grants (U.S., British, French, Spanish?- not sure which) used to convey land ownership to the middle of the earth.

It depends on your agreement. There are several ways that land ownership (and yes, land is owned in the U.S. - it is called real property because it is tangible) can be assigned.

It depends on whether your property rights are separate/severed from the mineral rights; one can sever or reserve the mineral rights from the surface rights. This is called a Separate Mineral Interest. Some states have regulations which have an impact on the ownership/use of mineral rights.

There are some other ways to have ownership. I put a link to a good website explaining it below:

2007-02-04 01:51:16 · answer #3 · answered by parrot.crazy 2 · 0 0

In any contract there are two parties. the seller and the buyer.

if you buy land from a person say MR.X, in the contract it states what you own. unless the government has some sort of law already limiting the amount of the contract. for instance in most of the countries you can buy SAHARA land right up to the middle of the earth. but other lands even if there is nothing in it you can buy upto 50 stories at most meaning a 50 level basement. since in some countries like japan its not just land but the soil and earth is important so they might sell you 2 storied into the earth or in the middle east they dont even sell you land they just sell you the right of renting it and living in it for no cost. since the government owns all lands. and even in UK's the kingdom owns all the lands and people just change papers for contracts....

and on a philisophical levelm land to the center of the earth would be a nul contract since a contract must be entourd by a realistic mesure, meaning you must prove its existence to own it or it is automaticly a anulated contract.
besides think of it to seperate land right to the middle means you would own a needle tip of it since its like the tip of the pizza slice. not much to settle for ! ! !

Oh and think of this ... when you are buying appartments... YOU ARE BUYING AIR !!!! nothing more!!!

2007-02-03 17:05:37 · answer #4 · answered by prince3persia 2 · 1 0

In the USA you can not own land. It is called Real Estate NOT Real Ownership for a reason. Estate means you can stay on it our use it unless or until the Government (federal or local) decides otherwise. That power is called "eminent domain". And, NO you can only use the surface unless your Estate Title gives you mineral or water rights and most don't.

2007-02-03 16:53:33 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

No. In Arkansas when you buy property you are typically only buying the surface, and the seller retains the mineral rights. So if you ever find oil or diamonds on your land, it's not your. But you can rent the surface space out for the rigs!

2007-02-03 16:52:37 · answer #6 · answered by smellyfoot ™ 7 · 0 0

No. Not unless he buys the mineral rights too. If you don't have mineral rights, an oil well can drill sideways to get oil under your land. As can a coal mine, precious metals mine, etc. Mineral rights means you can "sell" the minerals (oil and natural gas included) and/or get a percentage of profits as long as something to sell remains. Owning mineral rights supposedly has "to the middle of earth" property rights.

2007-02-03 17:03:15 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

That would depend on the "mineral rights" clause of their land agreement & government variances & ordinances.

2007-02-03 16:53:13 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

No you will find that you mostly own the top foot all the rest belongs to the state.

2007-02-05 05:58:32 · answer #9 · answered by roger a 3 · 0 0

I am pretty sure they do though it is not in the land survey.

2007-02-03 16:53:13 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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