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Any info is most welcome.

2007-02-03 03:56:03 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities History

6 answers

In the years before the WW I the Germans know that they had to fight on 2 fronts from the start of the war.
There for they had a doctrine called the Schlieffen plan ( called after the general Von Schlieffen the author of the strategy).
This plan ( in a nutshell ) had the idea that the Germans will first use there mass of troops against French and then when France where beaten bring there troops over ( by rail ) to the other side of Germany against the troops of Russia. At the same time defend the border with Russia with the least amount of troops as possible and even give up land and retreat if necessary. Later on in the offensive this could be regained.

The concept where this was based on was that
- the rusian army need mutch more time to mobilisy then the french army so attack franch first.
-the border of germany ( prussia ) and russia was almost deserted with almost no roads or railways so the advance would be easy to stop.

This plan had some major drawbacks
- the invastion of belgium where the germans already got behind there time table
- the russian army did a very great effort to support there ally's and was able to send a army into prussia before the germany's where ready and in a panique reaction they called troops back from the western front.
the rest of the war is history

2007-02-03 04:57:17 · answer #1 · answered by general De Witte 5 · 2 0

Yes, Germany did launch a second front in Russia during WWI.

2007-02-03 12:03:30 · answer #2 · answered by WMD 7 · 0 0

The mobilization of the Russian Army provoked the Kaiser to attack...thus opening up a second front in WWI.

2007-02-03 05:06:36 · answer #3 · answered by Its not me Its u 7 · 0 0

I don't think so, when Germany attacked Russia it was primarily the only front. But the allies did launch a second front against Germany, which Russia appreciated greatly.

2007-02-03 04:02:54 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

It grow to be continuously Hitler's objective to conflict on the Soviet Union. in part because there grow to be a lot land that were 'German' before WWI contained in the eastern international places and Soviet Union and in part - truly - because it grow to be a "Communist", Slavic (so non-Aryan) u . s . a .. upload the Ukrainian wheat fields, the minerals and ores and the oil, and it grow to be too a lot to leave contained in the fingers of sub-people!! The Non-Aggression p.c.. grow to be in hardship-free words to confirm that the better 'German' aspects of Poland should be properly received, and that Germany should be loose to salary conflict on the Western the front with out aggravating that there should be an attack from the east. Operation Barbarossa grow to be planned lengthy before Hitler invaded France - some say it grow to be planned before the western marketing campaign! it appears that evidently that Hitler felt flushed with fulfillment after conquering maximum of Europe. He grow to be annoyed via the failure of the conflict of england, yet felt the Allies were truly 'cooped up' on the islands of england and ought to not in any respect get into "fort Europe". at the same time as it nonetheless looked Germany grow to be prevailing, he released Barbarossa, to acheive his major objective. (It suprised many he waited see you later as he did.) briefly, then, the Non-Aggression p.c.. grow to be in hardship-free words tactical and continuously meant to be non everlasting. (And it did help that Soviet forces in Poland were nonetheless setting up into their new protecting positions, at the same time as their eliminating from 'Russian' soil weakened their defenses.)

2016-12-03 09:51:36 · answer #5 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

Yup, and they didn't learn anything from it, because they did it again in WW2 with pretty much the same results.

2007-02-03 04:04:59 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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