Let f(x) = x/(x - 1) g(x) = (x - 1)/x h(x) = 1/(x - 1) . Then (f - h)(x) =?

2 ⤊

Let f(x) = x/(x - 1) g(x) = (x - 1)/x h(x) = 1/(x - 1) . Then (f - h)(x) =?

a. 1

b. x

c. 1/x

d. -x

or none of these

2007-02-03 03:32:32 · 3 answers · asked by Olivia 4 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics

3 answers

2007-02-03 03:39:27 · answer #1 · answered by Maths Rocks 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋

The answer is a. 1. (f-h)(x) = (x-1)/(x-1) because both f(x) and h(x) have the same denominator. (x-1)/(x-1) = 1 because you're dividing one quantity by same quantity; like if you were to do 2/2, that would equal 1.

2007-02-03 11:42:04 · answer #2 · answered by Alley 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋

(f-h)(X) = f(X) - h(X) so
x/(x-1) - 1/(x-1) = (x-1)/(x-1) = 1

2007-02-04 01:10:50 · answer #3 · answered by MATHMANRET 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋