We start with the undoubtedly flawless:
(1/4) > (1/8)
which equals:
(1/2)^2 > (1/2)^3
=> 2log(base 10)(1/2) > 3log(base 10)(1/2)
cancelling out log(base10)(1/2), we are left with:
2>3.
What is wrong with this proof???
2007-02-03 03:09:38 · 7 answers · asked by AeroAndy 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
log(base10)(1/2) has a negative value so in order to cancel it out from both sides of the inequality you also have to change the inequality symbol to <. So you will have 2<3
2007-02-03 03:17:28 · answer #1 · answered by AlexisEd 2 · 2⤊ 0⤋
If anything with an error which is not a mathemagic or a comedy.
One is 2 log base and other is 3 so how can they cancel. This is as ridiculous as
I studied in Std. 7 and my roll no. was 25
Now, I am in Std. 8 and my roll no. is 24
so,
8 - 1 = 7
and, 24 + 1 = 25
As +1 and -1 cancel, they conditions remain the same.
2007-02-03 03:28:16 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
well your question is 1/4> 1/8 which means 1>1/2
which means 2>1 and now take log on both the side you will get 0.3010>0 which is true the error in your question is the way you proceeded in few steps.
2007-02-03 03:20:39 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
nicely, a singularity is definitely no longer no longer something. it somewhat is an merchandise of endless mass and minimum or no volume. The capability and rely have been all there, probably. for sure, no severe scientist will declare to understand precisely what handed off in the 1st few seconds after the massive Bang--yet they're getting closer daily. by employing the way, straightforward math + straightforward physics =/= quantum mechanics.
2016-12-17 08:34:24 · answer #4 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
log(base 10)(1/2) is negative, therefore the sign changes.
2007-02-03 03:13:40 · answer #5 · answered by epbr123 5 · 4⤊ 0⤋
You can't cancel out the logs. One is 2log, the other 3log.
2007-02-03 03:14:59 · answer #6 · answered by sparbles 5 · 0⤊ 2⤋
The error is in your head!
2007-02-03 03:13:30 · answer #7 · answered by ndrsfarkas 2 · 0⤊ 2⤋