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My husband was laid off from his job because they did not have enough work for him.They said that because he was the last to be hired, he was the first to go. They let him go on the spot, had him clean out his things and sent him home that day. Did his employer break the law by not giving him more than 2 minutes notice? If you have any legit insights with knowledge of the law, I would appreciate it. Thanks!!

2007-02-03 03:04:01 · 3 answers · asked by cperreault78 1 in Politics & Government Law & Ethics

3 answers

Generally speaking there are two types of employees: employees under contract (could be a Union contract, too) and at-will hirees.

You should check your husband's employee's handbook, if on was given to him at the date of hire.

An at-will hiree can be fired at any time, without advance notice, as long as it is not a discriminatory firing.

This would include firing because of race, religion, gender, sexual preference. It would also include not firing the hiree for filing a Workers' Comp claim or acting as a "Whistle Blower," i.e. alerting the Health Department of in-house violations.

If your husband had no contract with the company, and there was a non-discriminatory reason for laying him off, he may have no remedy except for collecting unemployment benefits.

2007-02-03 07:14:33 · answer #1 · answered by MenifeeManiac 7 · 0 0

you want to envision to work out if califronia is a "precise to paintings" state wich means that the business business enterprise can employ and fireplace at will notwithstanding the worker also has the right to leave at any time too. except your below settlement. then you fairly might want to get severence pay supplied contained in the settlement. yet when theres any type of discrimination you ought to refer to a criminal professional

2016-11-02 05:17:18 · answer #2 · answered by mosesjr 4 · 0 0

No advance notice is required.

2007-02-03 03:17:23 · answer #3 · answered by mnwomen 7 · 0 0

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