2007-02-02 22:11:20 · 5 answers · asked by springdragon 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
If you let x=1, you can't get infinitely many answers by taking the Fibinacci sequence (1,1,2,3,5,8,13,21,34,) etc. (1,1,1), ( 1,2,5) (1,5,13) (1,13,34) are solutions and I guess you can go on for ever. Just do it by induction.
2007-02-02 23:48:18 · answer #1 · answered by gianlino 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Answer #2 seems to suggest how to explicitly exhibit the solution. Work from there (if it's right). In particular, it asserts that you can set x = 1 and find infinitely many solutions to 1 + y^2 + z^2 = 3yz. You may want to look up explicit formulae for the terms in the basic Fibonacci sequence.
Answers #1 and #3 are from people who obviously misread the question.
2007-02-03 06:27:21 · answer #2 · answered by Curt Monash 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
integrating partialy w.r.t x on lhs and rhs,
x^3/3+y^2x+z^2x=3/2x^2yz
putting x=y=z=1,
1\3+2=3/2
7/3is not equal to 3/2
hence it has infinite integral solution
2007-02-02 23:10:59 · answer #3 · answered by james bond 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
x2+x2+x2 is not equal to 3xyz.
2007-02-03 00:25:19 · answer #4 · answered by Mohammed Fahad 1 · 0⤊ 3⤋
never possible
2007-02-06 03:37:45 · answer #5 · answered by gangster r 1 · 0⤊ 1⤋