2007-02-02 20:36:00 · 17 answers · asked by heebygeeby 4 in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
yes but if you get a good lawyer u may get everything unless the prenuptial and then u get what u came with and then if the marriage just did not work out then you all can work it out peacefully i have learned that in this marriage now everything i bought i put a tag with my name oh it ha ha so when we split i get whats mine
skittle
2007-02-02 20:42:11 · answer #1 · answered by freak6993703 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
There was a law introduced not long ago, that couples can now go right back in the records and find out who put what in the property initially, and then split the proceeds of the sale accordingly. Otherwise the spouse does get half.
2007-02-02 20:43:41 · answer #2 · answered by Angelfish 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Not always. But being married means that another person will make constant demands of you and you'll not know peace and quiet while you're catering to someone else's needs. It's a very stressful time which is why a lot of marriages fail.
2007-02-02 20:41:43 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
no- laws vary from state to state, but generally, a spouse may not be entitled to properties that were acquired prior to marriage.usually, property that was acquired during the marriage is equally owned. now, if the property that was acquired prior to marriage came with monthly payments,such as a house that you both lived in, the other spouse may be entitled to half. even if you owned it before marriage, if the spouse helped with payments,or contributed to it in any way.(happened to me. i owned a house for years before i married. he left after 9 years of marriage,and i had to pay him for his 'share' since he contributed to payments and upkeep during the marriage,) its not always black and white .sometimes there are shades of gray
2007-02-02 20:54:43 · answer #4 · answered by DEBI M 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think so. In legal issues everything becomes community property at 50-50.
2007-02-02 20:43:11 · answer #5 · answered by Monsieur Rick 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Only one half of what you acquired after you got married.
2007-02-02 20:45:07 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes the law is discriminatory and has to be changed. Stealing is stealing. Always sign a prenup. No prenup. no relationship.
2007-02-02 20:42:34 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Half of the community property, at least.
2007-02-02 20:55:52 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Depends on the State sometimes.
2007-02-02 20:41:25 · answer #9 · answered by elliebear 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Depends - if there are no kids and you didnt contribute much then you wouldnt always get half xxxxxxxx
2007-02-02 20:40:00 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋