Please explain very very elaborately!
2007-02-02 20:28:46 · 3 answers · asked by HsNWarsi 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
i think its because of the justification why a^0 = 1... note that
(a^x)/(a^y) = a^(x-y) and this is why if x = y a^(x-y) = a^(x-x) = a^0
note that returning to the original term gives us (a^x)/(a^x)
from here we say that a^0 = 1....
however 0^0 would mean 0^(x-x) = (0^x)/(0^x) which equals 0/0 which we don't know the value of...
2007-02-02 20:39:21 · answer #1 · answered by not.my.name 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
0**0 implies that the 0th root of 0 is 0. This is equivalent to saying that 0**(1/0) power is 0 . . . its just division by zero again. If you allow it, then you can prove than any number is equal to any other number.
2007-02-02 21:03:14 · answer #2 · answered by Runa 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes any number which is not zero gives 1
why : you remember that x^a /x^b = x^(a-b)
So ,if you write x^a /x^a = x^(a-a) = x^0 And this is equal to 1
The only problem when x=0, you have not the right todivide by 0. So, you have a problem
2007-02-02 21:15:50 · answer #3 · answered by maussy 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋