Say I give my friend a can of pop, and he opens it finding out that it is a million dollar winning can. Would he keep it since I gave it to him? Or would I since I paid for it?
2007-02-02 12:13:57 · 5 answers · asked by frogster99 2 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
Hmm...yeah true I would be giving it to him, but can't you say I was giving him the pop, and not the can? If that makes any sense.
2007-02-02 15:43:35 · update #1
It might matter where you were. If it was at your house, for example, one would assume that he would leave the can there (for you to return to the store for the deposit) like most people do. Even if he was drinking it, it was still at your house. Then - it's yours.
If you gave it to him to take with him and he left the property - it's his. If he was nice though, he'd split it with you.
2007-02-02 12:30:37 · answer #1 · answered by Jilly 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You gave him the can of pop, so in doing so, you handed over legal ownership of the can of pop - and all things connected to the can of pop - to the friend when you gave it to him. So you would be out a cool mil.
2007-02-02 20:26:36 · answer #2 · answered by volleyballchick (cowards block) 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I'm not sure, but I'm going to guess that once you "give" the can to your friend, it becomes his property. If he took the can, went out into the street, and threw it on the ground in front of a cop, he couldn't claim, "Officer, that's not my can. It's my friends"
I'm not a lawyer, though, and every state is different. Let's see what others say.
2007-02-02 20:23:14 · answer #3 · answered by Pythagoras 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You gave him the can of pop so he would become the owner(you let him). So it's all his.
It sucks though.
2007-02-02 21:20:44 · answer #4 · answered by cruel 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If you gave the can to him it is now his, so i would say he gets it. That would truely suck though...lol
2007-02-02 20:22:43 · answer #5 · answered by kittycat lover 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋