2007-02-02 11:08:47 · 4 answers · asked by sshahraz 3 in Social Science ➔ Economics
These are completely intertwined with one another, but typically, researchers will posit that the infant mortality rate (IMR) is an absolute reflection of the economic well-being of a country. I suppose in order to address health issues, one could not ignore income, or vice-versa, given the $1 and $2 a day standards by which income inequality and abject poverty are measured.
2007-02-02 14:03:16 · answer #1 · answered by Professor K 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I work hard to improve my own income, and will not let the government tell me that I can't make more money than other people because it "isn't fair to them". If a person wants more, they have to put out more. It's that simple!! As far as health inequality, what the heck does that even mean? Is it actual "inequality" in health. If so, the same rule applies. I take car of myself to stay healthy....is that somehow "unfair" to someone that isn't healthy?
2007-02-02 19:19:08 · answer #2 · answered by wildraft1 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I don't think there is a problem. People are not equal. I am more educated that some, and less educated then some. I am wealthier than some and poorer than some. I am not equal to those people. This doesn't imply better or worse, just different and different is not equal.
2007-02-02 19:15:57 · answer #3 · answered by Terra T 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Why do they need tackling? Different skills earn different incomes, and different premiums command different health plans - tackle what?
2007-02-02 19:11:12 · answer #4 · answered by All hat 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋