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Why was it not able to hang on to the Balkans , for example?
Why did it not assert itself more against European powers?

2007-02-02 10:07:15 · 3 answers · asked by Charles R 1 in Arts & Humanities History

3 answers

Islam, the predecessors of the "Ottoman Empire", was defeated in all confrontations from the XVII century onward, due to a lack of mystique, disorganization, inefficiency and corruption.

By 1914 at the beginning of World War I, the world referred to the Ottoman Empire as the "Sick Man of Europe", it was a disintegrating empire.

Siding its self with the loosing powers in World War I, "German" and "Austro Hungarian Empire" was its death sentence.

The "Treaty of Versailles" resolved that the greater part of the Ottoman Empire in the middle east be handed over as "Mandates" to England, France and Belgium.

Turkey became the inheritors of the Ottomans.

2007-02-02 10:39:23 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

to answer to your question is big but very simply put it lost the Balkans due to the raise of nationalism amount its Balkan subjects which lead to them fighting for independence.
it couldn't assert itself against Europe because it wasn't modernized enough to stand up to them militarily or economically.it couldn't effectively reform because most ruling nobles were against because they would lose power,wealth and they felt it was admitting that Europe was superior to them.
it was also too multicultural with only the nobles seeing themselves as ottoman and even then so nobles like the bosians wanted freedom.
for more information read "the Balkans 1804-1999" by Misha glenny

2007-02-02 20:52:23 · answer #2 · answered by seamus_scanlon 1 · 0 0

Failure to industrialize and failure to come to terms with nationalism.

2007-02-02 18:37:32 · answer #3 · answered by CanProf 7 · 0 0

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