Prince Phillip is Queen Elizabeth II's husband. Why is called "Prince?" Shouldn't he be KING? how does that work?
2007-02-02 08:13:20 · 14 answers · asked by jmprince01 4 in Society & Culture ➔ Royalty
In fact it is all about who holds the title. For example:
If a man in given a peerage (made to be a 'Lord') he gains his title, for example Lord Marck of London; His wife becomes Lady Helen, for example.
But, if instead the woman is given a peerage in her own right she becomes Dame Helen of London, and her husband stays just Mr Marck.
Similarly when the queen married Philip, he was made a Duke - such is traditional - and he became Prince Philip. His wife then became Queen Elizabeth but he remained Prince Philip, because the title doesn't transpose to the man. If it had been the other way round and Prince Philip had become King Philip, then the Elizabeth would have still been Queen Elizabeth; but Philip would rule.
2007-02-02 11:09:29 · answer #1 · answered by marc k 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
King TRUMPS Queen, sorry.
If Philip were called a King he would automatically rule. So, when Queen Victoria married, they made up a new title for her husband, the Prince Consort. Just like Queen Elizabeth's Mother, Queen Elizabeth was know as "King George VI and Queen Elizabeth, the Queen Consort." Then, when Queen Elizabeth II gained the throne with her husband, Prince Philip, he was instantly recognized as "Prince Philip, the Prince Consort." If he was made "King Philip, the King Consort" he would still outrank Elizabeth II as a KING. So, he would have to ALWAYS stay a Prince. While Camilla or Williams wife, WILL be a Queen Consort to their King.
2007-02-02 23:36:57 · answer #2 · answered by AdamKadmon 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Prince Phillip, of Macedonia, is 1) Not English. (But then most of the royal family isn't.
Elizabeth is a Queen in her own right because her father was King. She married a "commoner" basically, although he was some royal blood through the Saxe-Coburg family and the Greek/Macedonian families.
She could have decreed him a King but preferred not to do so.
It is well to keep in mind that during both World Wars the so called "royal" family in England were not all that popular since their bloodlines were mostly Germanic. And very likely King George, Elizabeth's father, didn't feel the "British" would take too kindly to a German being made "king" of England during or shortly after the second world war.
Truly, the only completely British member of the Royal Family until Diana came along was Elizabeth's mother, Lady Bowes Lyon of Scottish descent. Diana's Royal Bloodlines go back over 6 centuries, and are almost purely British. The Spencers are one of the oldest "BRITISH" families to ever have a member in the Royal Family. And, sadly, they just couldn't stand it.
2007-02-02 19:57:07 · answer #3 · answered by ? 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Queen Elizabeth II is the Constutional Monarch because her father King George VI had no sons; royal succession in Great Britain is through the eldest son unless there is none as in Elizabeth's case. When a male is the Monarch, his wife has the title of Queen but with no power. In Queen Elizabeth's case Prince Philip is her consort and likewise has no Constitutional power, thus retains the title of Prince, most likely to ensure that there is no confusion regarding his wife's position as ruler.
2007-02-02 16:25:56 · answer #4 · answered by Lynci 7 · 4⤊ 0⤋
It's up to the Queen, as long as Parliament agrees.
In 1688 after James II was deposed, Parliament decided that the next heir to the throne was his daughter Mary. She was already married to William of Orange, and said that she would only be Queen if Parliament would agree to him being King. So they agreed, and he continued to rule as King after she died.
If the Queen had wanted the same arrangement for Philip, and Parliament had agreed, then it would probably have happened. She asked instead for him to be a Prince, and Parliament agreed to that. But there are no rules, and everybody likes things the way they are just now, so it looks as though she made the right call.
2007-02-03 14:13:15 · answer #5 · answered by bh8153 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Technically, a king is a higher power then a queen. It is Queen Elizabeth who inherited the throne through her bloodlines. If Philip was king, then he would be in a higher position than Elizabeth who rightfully inherited the throne. To prevent this, he remains a Prince.
2007-02-02 18:25:59 · answer #6 · answered by moonshine 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The Queen never had Philip crowned. That is why hes called prince. Another reason is that the royal line comes from her side of the family not his. He is just under a king. He is called a Prince Consort so that he can't over throw his wife's decisions. If he was King he could overthrow what she said even though the crown came through her.
2007-02-02 16:27:19 · answer #7 · answered by Cherry 3 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Cos King is generally a higher ranking than a Queen. But since Queen Elizabath is the head of the monarch. So her husband has been ro be given a lower ranking title.
2007-02-02 16:24:51 · answer #8 · answered by chardonnayormerlot 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Philip is only a prince because if he would be king, he would outrank Queen Elizabeth.
2007-02-03 06:11:16 · answer #9 · answered by Sarah* 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Bloodlines...the queen inherited the title from her side of the family.
2007-02-02 16:22:17 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋