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2007-02-02 06:41:51 · 18 answers · asked by united we stand 3 in Arts & Humanities History

18 answers

I know Russell Crowe is gay, and demanded to do a gay love scene in the movie, therefore that rumor begins. Though he did nail Rosario Dawson to the wall in that flick. Its likely the real Alexander was bi sexual too based on most accounts, as well as intimate with his mother. Sicko.

2007-02-02 06:44:55 · answer #1 · answered by Import Car Salesman 3 · 1 1

He was most probably bi, but we can't know for sure since no existing records state that he ever had sexual relations with a man, the Egyptian and Ptolemaic histories are lost, although Arian makes reference to them in his "Life of Alexander". We do know that Alexander and Hephaestion sacrificed together at the tombs of Achilles and Patroclus, and that this was a common way for lovers of the time to express their devotion to each other. We also know that he kept the Persian eunuch Bagoas as his constant companion, and tent mate in the later years of his life. Spirit Walker: I don't know where you heard that Alexander was an alcoholic, but accounts of his life show no indications of the kind of physical degeneration that would have resulted from a death by cirrhosis, he was alert and active right up till the end, that he died right after a drinking party suggests poison, not chronic liver disease. Other suggestions have been malaria, which we know he'd had before, typhoid, or viral encephalitis. Jon X: Alexander actually had three wives, all political marriages, Roxana of Bactria, Statira (daughter of Darius III), and Parystatis (daughter of Ochus), as well as one concubine, Barsine (daughter of Artabazus, satrap of Phrygia). He fathered sons by Barsine (Heracles, his first born) and Roxana (Alexander IV).

2016-05-24 05:45:07 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

No, then he would have been Alexander the Fabulous.

Seriously, though - what we would today consider 'bisexual' behavior was considered normal among Greek (and Roman) males. The Greeks didn't occupy themselves overmuch with wondering why someone would be attracted to one person or another, although youth and vitality were considered attractive regardless of gender. A couple of wrinkled old queers who would have nothing to do with women would probably have raised eyebrows, but just about anyone could be excused for wanting to get 'up close and personal' with a handsome youth.

2007-02-02 07:08:47 · answer #3 · answered by dukefenton 7 · 1 0

most likely a bisexual. Many ancient civilizations around europe perceive homosexuality similar to heterosexuality....its just sex.

its clearly mentioned in historical accounts...eg: male bath houses, male concubines for the kings and the wealthy, which was common among the ancient greeks.

but of course in those times sex between two males was very widely accepted as a norm. It wasnt until modernization and christianity set in before it became a taboo or an unnatural act.

2007-02-02 07:02:49 · answer #4 · answered by darklight 1 · 1 0

No. Alexander the Great was married to a Babylonian woman, and according to most reliable sources, he was quite in love with her. In fact, he died about a year after he married her, while still living in Babylon.

2007-02-02 06:58:47 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

Yes

2007-02-02 06:44:36 · answer #6 · answered by greebo 4 · 1 0

No, but the Gay's would have you believe every person of history was in someway or another. There is no evidence and never will be for any such assertion. It is only a group of people trying to add legitimacy to their cause. I have always wondered why they need to do this, for they do not.

2007-02-02 06:47:51 · answer #7 · answered by kickinupfunf 6 · 1 2

there is no histirical evidence that he was gay however noblemen eing lovers wasnot uncommon in ancient greece and in some cases seen as benifical as it strengthened the ties between men which was important in war

2007-02-02 13:14:29 · answer #8 · answered by seamus_scanlon 1 · 0 0

Well, he was a Macedonian and in that period, many Greek city-states practiced some form of pedoatry...man-boy relationships...as a way forge male bonds esp. amongst soldiers. Don't forget that we tend to see ancient sexuality through our victorian eyes...they didn't view sexuality like we did.....

2007-02-02 06:51:19 · answer #9 · answered by boston857 5 · 1 0

Yes it is true but they wont mention this in any American history book on European history. You can try and look it up on wikipedia or maybe an autobiography.

2007-02-02 07:13:19 · answer #10 · answered by Will S 2 · 0 0

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