I know... I should use a dicitonary. But I get two meanings:
1. Someone who is genderless.
2. Someone with no sexual desires.
But which one is it? Can you be genderless and have sexual desires? Can you lack sexual desires but have a gender? I don't understand why the word should mean both! ?
2007-02-02 05:44:45 · 4 answers · asked by Peter R 2 in Social Science ➔ Psychology
The answer is 2.
see www.asexuality.org
Yes one can have a gender and not have sexual desires. And like other aspects of human sexuality there's a spectrum. Some people have occasional sexual desires, some have a low sex drive, some average, and so on.
BTW, it isn't a "lack", it's simply the absence of something that most people have.
The word for someone who doesn't have a gender... or, rather, has physiological aspects of both genders, is "intersex". The word "androgyne" is also used.
2007-02-02 05:57:53 · answer #1 · answered by MBK 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It meant that one that is A-sexual does not want any sexual contact what so ever with any gender.
2007-02-02 13:53:27 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
well you can be both or just one. if you have no gender, then certainly youre asexual. but if you deny sexual desire for others, then you are also asexual
2007-02-02 13:55:48 · answer #3 · answered by the Bruja is back 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It doesn't mean both. It means one or the other, depending on the situation.
2007-02-02 13:47:47 · answer #4 · answered by Am I. Incognito 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋