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If you have an integral of some function (f(x) where F'(x)=f(x)) over interval [a,b] where a=b then aren't you not taking the integral? Isn't that just like what the fucnction should be? Isn't it just the line segmint at a to F(a)? So I am unsure whether or not the integral would be zero. You have no width on your area but you have height (excluding F(a)=0). Am I confusing the idea of the added constant with the integral itself or am I just really confused? Is that integral always zero because your height is one (or zero) dimentional, and the integral is a 2-D quantity?

2007-02-02 05:28:12 · 1 answers · asked by Michael M 4 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

1 answers

The integral represents area, and lines are infinitely thin and thus have no area. This is why the integral is 0.

2007-02-02 05:58:35 · answer #1 · answered by lizzy208_ayla 2 · 0 0

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