I mean, I was hearing this legislator several days ago, talking about the "good old days," (his assessment) when university dormitories thought "bare feet on women were too sexy." When did a person's dress become a matter of personal freedom/expression, rather than a matter of distinguishing "polite" society from
those who would not conform?
2007-02-02
04:42:53
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3 answers
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asked by
Philip Kiriakis
5
in
Arts & Humanities
➔ History
O.k., let me add that several responders in the past have misinterpreted "Anglo-American" .... I mean basically the U.K. and the U.S. .....
2007-02-02
04:44:27 ·
update #1