2007-02-02 03:54:13 · 5 answers · asked by MARIANNA 2 in Business & Finance ➔ Renting & Real Estate
You need to check the original lease. It will have all the restrictions and limitations spelled out. If there is a clause saying you can not rent and you signed the lease then it will be hard to argue otherwise.
There could be something in the lease that is no longer legally valid. Less likely if the lease is fairly current. More likely is the lease is 20 or 30 years old. Even then a change in the laws will many times grandfather past transactions unless there is a provision in the law to make the party losing rights to be compensated.
The freeholder might have the right to be notified when someone new is going to be resident in the property. They could even have the right to approve a new tenant. Normally such rights have restrictions on why a freeholder could say no.
Start with the document and if necessary get legal advise as to what the lease means.
2007-02-02 04:04:40 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It would have to be a specific term of the lease...but it is highly unlikely any solicitor would allow a client to purchase such a lease...it would be grossly negligent.
2007-02-02 03:58:00 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It's called subletting or subleasing. Make sure it was specifically forbidden in the lease agreement. If it was not specifically forbidden, you cannot now forbid it.
2007-02-02 04:02:05 · answer #3 · answered by sovereign_carrie 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I wouldn't have thought they could. The whole point of the lease is that you have rights to the land until the lease expires.
2007-02-02 03:57:08 · answer #4 · answered by mark 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
you are the landlord and the lease holder normally cant sublet asit breaking the contract
2007-02-02 04:04:00 · answer #5 · answered by Snot Me 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋