If the chance for rain are 40% and 20% for the two days of a weekend, what is the chance that it will rain on at least one day if the 2 events are independent?
2007-02-01 16:24:36 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
I can tell this is just a math problem because in the real world the chance of rain on two consecutive days would definitely not be independent. Anyway, to the math problem.
p(rain at least on day) = 1 - p(no rain on either day)
= 1 - (1- 0.4)(1 - 0.2) = 1 - 0.6*0.8 = 1 - 0.48 = 0.52
2007-02-01 16:39:15 · answer #1 · answered by Northstar 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
it is a probability question
let p(a) = it rains on 1st day = 40\100
& p(b) = it rains on 2n day = 20\100
since two events r independent,prob of happening at least 1 evt is
1-(1-40\100)(1-20\100)
1-6\10*8\10
52\100 ,p(a)=probability of happening event a
same as of b = p(b)
2007-02-09 01:56:41 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
being that there is a chance of rain on both days the chance of rain on 1 of 2 days sounds like a 50-50 chance
2007-02-07 11:19:05 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Northstar hit the nail on the head.
just be glad it is rain and not snow.
2007-02-09 00:05:25 · answer #4 · answered by john 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
15% chance of snow
2007-02-02 00:30:04 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
should b 30% if not wrong
2007-02-02 00:34:40 · answer #6 · answered by sleeping_beauty1976 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋