To whom is Thomas Jefferson referring to when he talks about "the people" in the Decleration of Independence? why?
2007-02-01 15:47:48 · 6 answers · asked by ? 2 in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
god, why can't you people do your own homework???
ill say, read your BOOK.
but the people are only the white MALE property owners,
slaves were not included, nor women..
they were not considered citizens.
such a hypocritical document. hmph.
2007-02-01 15:51:27 · answer #1 · answered by Jiovanna 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I would agree, but a lot of U.S. history books are "doctored" to provide a nice light on our founding fathers, The first response is correct that the people refer only to white land owners that are males. This is due to the fact that taxation without representation was the issue of the day, still present on Washington D.C. license plates by the way. And since there was no income tax but property tax and other forms like a stamp tax etc, the only people that would be responsible for paying for it would be the white males. It is due to this pay taxes your are buying freedoms.
2007-02-01 15:59:59 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
This is a document you must read for yourself. It's really not very long, and you can find the text on any number of web sites. Be sure to spell "declaration" correctly when you search. Good luck.
2007-02-01 15:55:42 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
he is talking about everybody like u me and everybody else in the US or Britain .... he says that b/c he wanted it to be fair so he said everybody except slaves they weren't mentioned along with women
2007-02-01 15:52:58 · answer #4 · answered by sarah 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
White male landowners. Why? Because he was a man of his time.
2007-02-01 20:45:42 · answer #5 · answered by PDY 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
adult white men. they had they rights and the power
2007-02-01 16:06:56 · answer #6 · answered by Bertine 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋