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2007-02-01 05:17:54 · 2 answers · asked by Jessica R 1 in Arts & Humanities History

2 answers

There weren't really any "moral" reasons for WWI. When a Serbian national assassinated the Archduke Ferdinand of Austria-Hungary, Austria-Hungary declared war on Serbia. Germany had a pact with Austria-Hungary to fight on its side in case of war, so it lived up to its agreement and also declared war. Unfortunately, these pacts littered Europe, so since other nations had pacts with Serbia and each other, soon all of Europe was at war, even though the cause was a person who had nothing to do with the Serbian government.

2007-02-01 05:30:30 · answer #1 · answered by cross-stitch kelly 7 · 1 0

Supporting their ally Austria-Hungary against threats rising from Russia. What Austria-Hungary wanted to do to Serbia was nearly the same as American forces in Afghanistan; they wanted to root out a percieved terrorist center. Russia stood up for Serbia against Austria-Hungary, which led Germany to enter WW1 while supporting Austira-Hungary against Russia.

France mobilized troops in response to Germany mobilizing against Russia. This forced Germany to strike at its ever more hostile neighbors before they attacked on two frots at once. Germany invaded France planning on a quick sweeping manuever to pin French forces between two walls of German troops.

Germany passed through Belgium, with Belgiums permission min you, but German troops caused so many problems that Belgium became angry and wanted the Germans to leave their country. Britain entered the war by backing Belgium, and only reluctantly supported their long time enemy France, thereby causing World War One.

2007-02-01 05:35:36 · answer #2 · answered by 29 characters to work with...... 5 · 0 0

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