Grammar : Which is more natural?

Question

1. I have been to the barber's to cut my hair.
2. I have been to the barber's to have my hair cut.
3. I have been to the barber's for the barber to cut my hair.

Actually, I am not good at grammar, so I was really confused. Please help me.

Answer 1

The correct answer is: I have been to the barber's to have my hair cut". How you phrase the sentence will describe it differently. This one clearly says that you went to have you hair cut. The first one sounds like you went there to cut your hair. And the last one is just too clumbsy sounding.When you read or write a sentence think about it in your mind: try to picture it. There is a subject, a verb (what you did), and the action or result ie: I--have been---to have my hair cut.

_There is a book called "Eats shoots and leaves". It means two different things without a comma and with a comma added. The first one is that the Panda, for example, eats shoots and leaves. With a comma it would be The Panda eats, shoots and leaves. Soundling like he ate, shot something and then left.

I do hope this helped.

Answer 2

First of all, learn how to correctly use apostrophes: there are apostrophes of omission "it's" (where the "i" is left out in "it is), and apostrophes of possession "the barber's scissors".

1.Better to say: "I have been to the barbers and had my hair cut".
2. Same again, because your tenses are not in agreement: "went", "have" should be "went", "had"
3. Better to say: "I went to the barbers to get my hair cut."

Answer 3

Option 2 but without the apostrophe.
I have been to the barbers to have my hair cut.

The apostrophe is used to show :
1. ownership eg. the barber's chair
2. omitted letters eg, The barber's open till noon today.
The barber is open .........

Answer 4

Actually it is "I went to the barber to have my hair cut."

Answer 5

i think 2

Answer 6

2. is correct.