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This is something I've always wondered about. The child has no choice in whom it is born to. Then why do such children continue to be stigmatized? Aren't the ppl who conceived it the real b*****ds?

P.S. I'm not referring to children born to rape victims, but to those ppl who were in the 'heat of the moment'.

Thanks in advance for your answers.

2007-01-31 22:23:43 · 6 answers · asked by Peace 3 in Society & Culture Other - Society & Culture

6 answers

I have no idea, however, I am of the mind that the term "bastard" is passe. I prefer to believe that there are no bastard children, only illegitimate parents.

H

2007-01-31 22:35:04 · answer #1 · answered by H 7 · 1 0

Bastard (Law of England and Wales)

A bastard in the law of England and Wales was a person whose parents, at the time of their birth, were not married to each other. A person conceived to a couple not married to each other but who subsequently marry before the birth would not be treated as a bastard.

Unlike many other systems of law, there was no possibility of post hoc legitimisation of a bastard. If the parents married after the birth, the child would remain a bastard.

Bastardy was not a status, like villeinage, but the fact of being a bastard had a number of legal effects on an individual.

A bastard was neither a direct nor a collateral heir of their parents -- a useful consequence if the parents were villeins.

A bastard could not be ordained as a priest.

One exception to the general principle that a bastard could not inherit, occurred when the eldest son (who would otherwise be heir) was born a bastard, but the second son was born after the parents were married. The eldest son is referred to as a bastard eigne, the second son a mulier puisne.

If the bastard eigne entered onto land of his father and became seised of it until his death, the mulier pusine and all other potential heirs of the father would not inherit, rather heirs of the bastard eigne's body would inherit.

The Provisions of Merton 1235 (20 Hen. 3 c. IX), otherwise known as the Special Bastardy Act 1235, provided that except in the case of real actions the fact of bastardy could be proved by trial by jury, rather than necessitating a bishop's certificate.

2007-01-31 22:37:04 · answer #2 · answered by landhermit 4 · 1 0

That word was in use long before America existed as a nation. It is a proper word of definition, so why worry? Why call an egg an ox? The proper word is egg, right? Few people go around judging what to call children, most use their given names. The improper word commonly used is *****, that is a female canine, not a female human.

2007-02-01 00:43:34 · answer #3 · answered by AJ 4 · 0 1

With you 100% - name-calling as such should rest with the "heat of the moment" couple rather than their progeny.

2007-01-31 22:32:36 · answer #4 · answered by renclrk 7 · 0 0

we should not call the cild a bastard, it was not his choice, it must be the ******* father/or mother for that matter

2007-01-31 23:48:15 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Yeah, you're right. Those filthy B*****d parents.
.

2007-01-31 22:28:37 · answer #6 · answered by The Great Walrus 5 · 0 0

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