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I understand that William Shakespeare was around in the 'Elizabethan Era', but in which period were his plays set?
eg. Romeo and Juliet?

2007-01-31 20:56:50 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities History

6 answers

Romeo and Juliet was originally written as a dramatic tragedy set in the time that Shakespeare was writing. E.g The Elizabethan age.

His plays break down into comedies, tragedies and histories and apart from the Histories (obviously) which were recalling past events, the other plays were contemporary pieces which were relevant to the times.

Today, Shakespeare's plays are set in both modern and traditional periods. That is one of the reasons his material is still so popular - the subjects are timeless and you can set Romeo and Juliet in modern costume and it still is as powerful a story as it was in Elizabethan days. (See the Baz Lurhman movie for example.)

I have appeared in productions of The Taming of The Shrew set in the sixties with motorcycle jackets and hippies, Much Ado About Nothing set in the 1990's and Midsummer Night's Dream set in contemporary Elizabethan wear. All work!

The language and some of the 'morality' in Shakespeare's writing may be old fashioned but the underlying stories are basic to human nature and experience and that is why - regardless of how you set and costume them - they still connect with audiences across the world.

There are very few playwrights who have achieved such success and produced original, contemporary work that has outlived them by hundreds of years.

Hope this helps.

2007-01-31 21:12:34 · answer #1 · answered by Stage-7 2 · 0 0

Shakespeare basically wrote three sorts of plays - thosewhich are described as comedies - Merry Wives of Windsor for example - and which were set in his own time, or perhaps a little earlier - renaissance Italy for example. (Not that you will get many belly laughs these days from his 'comedies'!) Then there were his 'history plays' - dealing with English History - the 'Henry' plays, for example. These were in part designed to bolster the feeling of 'Englishness' that was growing in Elizabethan times, and also to curry favour with the Tudors. The best example of this is Richard III which much maligns that King and shows him in a very bad light, justifying his overthrow by Elizabeth's grandfather, Henry VII. There are classical histories - Julius Caesar - and legendary histories - King Lear. Then there were the 'tragedies' - Hamlet being the finest example. Some fall into both history and tragedy - Macbeth, Julius Caesar, King Lear.

2007-01-31 22:12:49 · answer #2 · answered by rdenig_male 7 · 0 0

RE: substitute into William Shakespeare gay? In a study paper i'm formulating I could have a passage on Bard's Sexuality. i be conscious of that he Married Anne Hathaway and Fathered 3 babies, yet left the kin. substitute into this through fact he substitute into gay? despite if this wasnt the clarification, are there not sonnets at someway teach gay acts? if...

2016-10-16 09:51:26 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Most of his plays but not all were set in the same era.

2007-01-31 20:58:51 · answer #4 · answered by Twi Light 2 · 0 2

around 1600, during Elizabeth's reign

2007-02-01 01:04:26 · answer #5 · answered by Ana 3 · 0 0

ceasar.

2007-01-31 21:00:17 · answer #6 · answered by mr meat puppet 1 · 0 2

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