2007-01-31 18:52:12 · 7 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
g equals pi/3 for all x so g(3)=pi/3
f(pi/2)=cos(pi/2)=0
2007-01-31 18:55:38 · answer #1 · answered by Iman S 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
f and g are operators.
When g operates on 3 it gives pi/2.
When f operates on x it gives cosx
When f operates on pi/2, it gives cos(pi/2) = 0.
This can be shown as f(g(3)) = f(pi/2) = cos(pi/2) = 0
2007-02-01 05:12:00 · answer #2 · answered by Como 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
COS ( pi/2) = 0
becasue g(x) is pi halves at all values of x
2007-02-01 03:09:22 · answer #3 · answered by BIGDAWG 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Since you know that g(x) = pi/2, substitute the x with 3 as the question wants it to be g(3). Then, since the quesiton wants it to be f(g(3)), it means they want you to substitute the g(3) into f(x) eqaution. Meaning, once you substitute x as 3 for g(x), subtitute the whole of g(x) into f(x)'s x and then work your way through.
2007-02-01 03:03:53 · answer #4 · answered by Gaara of the Sand 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
f(g(3))=f(pi/2)=cos(pi/2)=0
2007-02-01 03:04:55 · answer #5 · answered by happyrabbit 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
f(x) =cos x,,,,,,,,g(x)=pi/2,,,,,,,,,,,g(3)=pi/2,,,,,,,,
f(x)=f(g(3))= cos(g(x))=cos(pi/2)=cos(90^)=0
2007-02-01 03:09:07 · answer #6 · answered by Tuncay U 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
g(x) = Ï/2 for any x. It is a constant. So
f(g(3)) = f(Ï/2) = cos(Ï/2) = 0
2007-02-01 03:05:22 · answer #7 · answered by Northstar 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋