Why are the area of squares used to prove the Pythagorean Theorem?
2007-01-31 14:49:34 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
Because area of a square is square of one side.
That means squaring a side of triangle means getting the area of square having all its side equal to length of side of that triangle. Squaring and adding sides of triangle gives you the total area of the two squares with each side equal to length of corresponding side of triangle. And it is equal to area of square with side equal to length of hypotenuse.
2007-01-31 15:02:42 · answer #1 · answered by Tariq M 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because the relationship works, hon.
In a rt triangle, c ^2 does indeed equal a^2 + b^2.... count on it, ever single time....
2007-01-31 22:53:24 · answer #2 · answered by April 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
a^2+b^2=c^2
a^2 is the area of a square with side=a, etc..
2007-01-31 22:52:45 · answer #3 · answered by TV guy 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
b/c theorems are about squares of numbers.
2007-01-31 22:52:44 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because it works. Because it's true. email me and I'll send you a powerpoint presentation on it.
2007-01-31 22:53:55 · answer #5 · answered by Philo 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Look here...it will explain it all to you very very clearly.
http://www.cut-the-knot.org/pythagoras/index.shtml
2007-01-31 23:14:11 · answer #6 · answered by eiplanner 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋