Integral ( (1 / [1 + sin(x)] dx)
This is obviously difficult to integrate in its current form. Let's try multiplying top and bottom by the conjugate of the bottom; that is,
1 - sin(x). Note that by doing so, we would be changing the denominator into a difference of squares.
Integral ( [1 - sin(x)] / [1 - sin^2(x)] ) dx
Now, apply the trig identity to the denominator.
Integral ( [1 - sin(x)] / [cos^2(x)] dx
Now, separate this into two fractions.
Integral ( (1/cos^2(x)) - sin(x)/cos^2(x) ) dx
By definition, sec(x) = 1/cos(x), so we have
Integral ( sec^2(x) - sin(x)/cos^2(x) ) dx
And now, we split this into two integrals.
Integral ( sec^2(x) ) dx - Integral (sin(x)/cos^2(x) ) dx
The first integral is easy; it's one of our known derivatives, and is equal to tan(x). The second integral we can solve by substitution.
Let u = cos(x). Then
du = -sin(x) dx, and
(-1)du = sin(x) dx, so we have
tan(x) - Integral ( 1/u^2 (-du) )
Pulling out the (-1) out of the integral, we get
tan(x) + Integral (1/u^2) du
And 1/u^2 is just u^(-2), and integrate this give us (-1)u^(-1), or
-1/u
tan(x) - 1/u + C
But u = cos(x), so
tan(x) - 1/cos(x) + C
tan(x) - sec(x) + C
2007-01-31 13:05:26
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answer #1
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answered by Puggy 7
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Don't know what's up with that y^5 up there, but here goes your integral... int y^4 from 0 to 2 = y^5/5 2^5/5 - 0^5/5 32/5 - 0 integral = 32/5 I can't explain here how to solve integrals. There are many different methods for many different types of integrals. Yours is the simplest, but explaining why and how would take a long, long time.
2016-05-24 00:28:17
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answer #2
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answered by ? 4
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The trick for this integral is to multiply both the numerator and denominator by (1-sinx). This gives the integral of (1-sinx)/(1-(sinx)^2). 1-(sinx)^2 = (cosx)^2, so the integrand is now (1-sinx)/(cosx)^2. Now separate the integral into two integrals. The first is the integral of 1/(cosx)^2, which is the integral of (secx)^2. This integral is just tanx. The second one is the integral of -sinx/(cosx)^2. Now just do a u-substitution with u = cosx, du = -sinxdx, and the integral is simple.
2007-01-31 13:14:09
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answer #3
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answered by JIB 2
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Integrate 1/(1 + sinx) with respect to x.
First rearrange the terms to make it easier to integrate.
1/(1 + sinx) = (1 - sinx)/{(1 - sinx)(1 + sinx)}
= (1 - sinx)/(1 - sin²x) = (1 - sinx)/cos²x
= 1/cos² - sinx/cos²x = sec²x - (tanx)(secx)
Now we can integrate.
∫{1/(1 + sinx)}dx = ∫{sec²x - (tanx)(secx)}dx = tanx - secx + C
2007-01-31 13:12:06
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answer #4
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answered by Northstar 7
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http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=integral
used this can help a lot =)
2013-11-27 13:39:17
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answer #5
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answered by Juan Gallardo 1
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Us solving it wont allow you to learn anything.
2007-01-31 12:58:54
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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