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I know the answer, i just need to simplify to see how i solve for P.

(100p-4000)/100p=.3

Simple, yes... apparently i use a calculator too often!!!

Thanks!!!

2007-01-31 10:26:06 · 9 answers · asked by chrismick98 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

9 answers

(100p-4000)/100p = .3 ok so first you multiply 100p to the other side so you get
100p-4000 = .3(100p)
100p-4000 = 30p then you subtract 100p
-4000 = 30p - 100p
-4000 = -70p then you dvide by -70
-4000/-70 = p

so p = 57.14 or (400/7)

hope that was helpful

2007-01-31 10:35:45 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Multiply both sides by 100 p.
Now 100p-4000 = .3(100p) or 30p
Now add 4000 to each side
100p = 30p +4000
Subtract 30 p from each side.
70p = 4000
Divide by 70 (use the calculator)

2007-01-31 10:33:32 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Easiest way

multiply both sides by 100p
(100p-4000)/100p *100p = .3 *100p

100p - 4000 = 30p *subtract 30 p from both sides
70p - 4000 = 0 * add 4000 to both sides
70p = 4000 *divide both sides by 70
p = 4000/70 = 57.14

2007-01-31 10:43:41 · answer #3 · answered by Curtis B 2 · 0 0

Ok, let's simplify this by multiplying everything by 100p. This gets us to 100p - 4000 = 30p. Now we want to get all the p's on one side, and all the numbers on the other, so 70p = 4000. At this point you're on your own.

2007-01-31 10:37:01 · answer #4 · answered by obelix 6 · 0 0

Since you have only one variable, the easiest way to simply a variable in a denomenator is to multiply both sides of the equation by itself.

So... multiply both sides by 100p... (this will remove the denomenator on the left side of the equation).

This will give you 100p-4000 = .3*100p or

100p-4000 = 30p

Now solve for p

-4000 =30p - 100p

-4000 = -70p

57.14 = p

So p = 57.14

Hope that helps! :)

2007-01-31 10:30:37 · answer #5 · answered by westdyk1 2 · 0 0

100p-4000 / 100p = .3
multiply both side by 100p
100p - 4000 = 30p
100p-30p = 4000
70p = 4000
p = 4000/70

2007-01-31 10:37:05 · answer #6 · answered by cyarnall80 1 · 0 0

multiply the 100p to the other side, then subtract the 100p to get -4000=-70p. divide to get about 57.14

2007-01-31 10:32:34 · answer #7 · answered by climberguy12 7 · 0 2

Make it: X^2 +6x - 16 = 0 Then ask your self, what 2 numbers multiply to -16 yet sum as a lot as be +6. There are not many judgements, so that you ought to attain +8 and -2. the answer is: (x+8)(x-2) = 0 - multiplying this out yields X^2 -2x +8x -16 which at the same time as simplified is the most ideas-blowing answer we've above. this suggests x= -8 and x = 2 are the solutions which will be difficult to what I reported above, yet in that area i grow to be attempting to educate you techniques to confirm a thanks to element it. This area is what x values make the equation equivalent to 0.

2016-12-03 07:18:36 · answer #8 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

Here it is

(100p - 4000)/ 100p = .3

100(p - 40)/ 100p = .3

p-40/ p = .3

p-40 = .3p

p - .3p = 40

.7p = 40

p = 40/.7

p = 57.1

2007-01-31 10:36:05 · answer #9 · answered by bulldidit 1 · 0 0

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