is this not correct?
2007-01-31 07:56:36 · 3 answers · asked by peeps you 4 in Society & Culture ➔ Cultures & Groups ➔ Lesbian, Gay, Bisexual, and Transgender
everythings mice rats with you isnt it, now wheres the pipe kedar?
2007-01-31 08:58:11 · update #1
sorry that was not nice of me, i was just a little mad with someone =) sorry kedar. even though im not sure what you mean
2007-01-31 09:00:33 · update #2
Yes. Although pedophilia is about sexual perversions,the feeling of power,fear and manipulation is a large factor.
2007-02-01 18:27:31 · answer #1 · answered by daddiesslut88 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Your question is not clear. Are you asking if an adult can be attracted toward other adults and still be a pedophile? The answer is yes. So that would make them a pedophile (which has no basis on gender) PLUS have a specific sexual orientation when it comes to adults. So a straight man can molest girls OR boys and still be considered straight. If a person is gay and a pedophile they can molest boys OR girls and still be considered gay.
If you're asking whether the gender of the child implies the sexual orientation of the adult I've already told you that the answer is no. If a straight man molests a boy it does not mean that the man is gay or bisexual. And if a gay person molests a girl it does not mean that the gay person is straight or bisexual.
I hope this clears things up.
2007-01-31 16:58:40 · answer #2 · answered by Jen 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It is possible that a gay or bisexual person could also be a pedophile, but it's unlikely.
Numerous studies have shown that pedophiles are statistically far far far more likely to be white heterosexual males.
A gay or bisexual pedophile would be an exception to the rule, per say.
2007-02-01 11:20:56 · answer #3 · answered by Sight 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋