Apparently the agreement said she had right to occupancy and use of home and as soon as mortgage paid in full title would be transferred to her name (it was in hubby's name only). She has been paying mortgage for 4-years now. Her husband fought alimony on grounds that she was obtaining all the equity in the home (letter from his lawyer to her states this as grounds for refusing alimony). Now her husband has gone and taken out and equity loan on the home???? Sounds like her lawyer forgot to close some loops???
This just seems wrong that he could do that. He is taking $50K
2007-01-31
07:47:40
·
4 answers
·
asked by
cathoratio
5
in
Politics & Government
➔ Law & Ethics
She has bad credit that is why she did not refinance at time of divorce. I never knew home was in his name only. Seems like dumb move to me!
2007-01-31
07:48:59 ·
update #1
How would she be able to pay off the mortgage and obtain title if he continues to increase size of mortgage. If her lawyer settled for this knowing she was getting "equity" in lieu of alimony, then I think her lawyer is an idiot? My sister put down 50% of downpayment too..... not sure why she did not have her name placed on title, but her ex is the controlling type..... I think maybe legal malpractice.
2007-01-31
11:05:18 ·
update #2