English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

If a woman has chosen to get so smashed out of her face on alcohol that she is completely oblivious to her surroundings and is so paralytic she can't even tell that someone is having sex with her, does she have a right to cry rape the next morning? Don't get me wrong, I am not condoning it. No man has the right to rape a woman whatever her mental state, but where does taking personal responsibility for oneself come into this?

2007-01-31 07:41:42 · 35 answers · asked by tiffin8013 2 in Society & Culture Cultures & Groups Lesbian, Gay, Bisexual, and Transgender

35 answers

Without consent, sex is rape!

ALWAYS!

If the same girl was robbed instead of raped because she was drunk, does that mean she cannot claim being robbed because she was drunk?

The same argument could be made of the person that was oblivious to the gang-bangers standing beside the ATM when he made a withdrawl. Does that mean he cannot say he was robbed after they robbed him????

2007-01-31 07:44:04 · answer #1 · answered by Radagast97 6 · 16 1

In a perfect world a woman would be able to walk down the street wearing whatever she wants and then order so much beer at the local bar that she passes out and still be safe. Unfortunately we don't live in a perfect world. This means that Should she have drank so much? No... It wasn't the smartest move. Does that mean she brought the rape upon herself? No. The perpetrator didn't have to decide to put his pecker where it didn't belong just because she was passed out. That action was on his part and he committed a crime. He was in control of the situation. She was unable to give consent. Since she was unable to give consent it was rape.

In terms of personal responsibility I always compare rape to other crimes to make it easier. Let's say a guy is walking down the street wearing a fancy suit, a rolex, and a wallet that is obviously full of cash. And he's walking in the middle of one of the most crime-ridden neighborhoods in the city. He gets robbed.

Now, did the man make the decision to walk down that street? Yes. Was it the greatest idea in the world? No. But a crime was still committed. It turned into a robbery the minute the perp grabbed him. The man has every right to press charges against the perp.

It's the same thing with rape. Now in terms of legal definitions you'd have to check with your local crisis center because the laws vary state to state like someone else said. But it was rape.

The perp needs to take personal responsibility for his actions. Not the other way around. Hope this helped a bit.

2007-01-31 07:57:10 · answer #2 · answered by Jen 4 · 1 0

Holy Crap!!! Taking personal responsibility? Really? Um, when a person is not able to give consent due to the fact they are hammered, the personal responsibility falls to the guy about to seriously invade her personal space to say, "why, this is in fact rape, and quite possibly a very bad idea." She should take responsibility for being an irresponsible drunk, but in no way does that mean she should be at fault for some pervert raping a basically unconscious women. This is a very disturbing and sad question.

2007-01-31 09:26:22 · answer #3 · answered by T 4 · 1 0

If the woman had not given consent then it's most def rape and she has every right to report it to the police. Yes she is responsible for how drunk she got but that still doesn't give any man the right to violate her no matter what. Any woman should be allowed to drink themselves into oblivion if they so wish without a man feeling that it's acceptable to have sex with her once she's done so,especially if she's in any fit state to consent to it.

2007-01-31 23:39:46 · answer #4 · answered by SHAKIRA 2 · 0 0

Well if she agreed, it isn't rape.

All kind of people come up with the excuse of being drunk and not knowing what they did, or not to be responsible for what they did, when they were drunk.

Isn't that bullshit? If you cannot control yourself when you are drunk than stay away from alcohol. I you beat someone to death, if you drive a car and run over a child, if you get together sexually ... it's your own fault, drink reasonably or stay sober.

And no, I am neither an antialcoholic, nor an alcoholic. And yes, I also did thing that I regret when I was drunk. But I do not blame the alcohol. In the end it was my fault.

2007-01-31 08:02:35 · answer #5 · answered by myfemaleside 2 · 1 1

I understand your point and agree with you. But that would be rape for the simple fact that she does not have the state of mind to choose to give consent. It is not really a case of taking personal responsibility, consent must be given with full knowledge, who ever was having sex with her should know this so it is their responsibility as well. It is never OK to have sex when no mutual consent has been agreed. The fact that she didn't say no is not reason enough to proceed, if she didn't say yes either. Look at this way, dead women don't say no, but does that make it right to crack open a cold one?

2007-01-31 07:55:24 · answer #6 · answered by gadmack2000 2 · 1 0

The woman in question does indeed have the right to cry "rape" the next morning, but since she was so drunk that she can't even tell someone is having sex with her, can she be relied upon to remember whether or not she has given consent.

She might want to investigate her drinking.

2007-01-31 07:46:28 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

If the other party was also soused, there may be some mitigating arguments, but if a sober person "takes advantage" of an enebriated person, that can definitely be construed as rape. Of course it won't always be that, but it is like if an adult copulates with someone underage--even if it is concenting--that becomes "statutory rape". A wife or girlfriend who wanted to do it, but her inebriation didn't let her remember probably won't complain, but she could cry rape if she wanted to. We also treat criminals differently when they suffer a lapse of sanity during commission of the crime or are incompetent to assist in their own defense at trial. It is the same concept.

2007-01-31 08:10:47 · answer #8 · answered by Rabbit 7 · 0 0

I see your point here, However personal responsibility comes into it from the male side as well, The guy clearly knows the girl is so drunk she doesnt know what she is doing, so having sex with her in that state is just plain wrong. Ok girl shouldnt have got into that state, but guy certainly shouldnt be taking advanatage. Unfortunatly it is a sad case some guys do, personally I think this is sick.

2007-01-31 20:07:07 · answer #9 · answered by djp6314 4 · 0 0

no man has the right to rape a woman,and any that does should be locked up and the key dropped in the ocean,but if she got so drunk who's to tell if she gave her consent or not,i have seen some of the nicest woman you could meet but once they get drunk ,you will probably have heard the saying one drink and i am anybodies,well who knows,if she cant remember who can.

2007-01-31 12:55:24 · answer #10 · answered by Aonarach 5 · 0 0

if a woman get drunk or accidentally get a sleeping pill. i advise woman hurt yourself badly until u badly bloodily injured yourself liked injured your hand until blood really flow a lot that a sacrifice u must make. That people will not even touch u and a lot people would run away and make a u more attention to people.PEOPLE SCARE someone BLOOD THAT THE REASON. if u in the PUB or bar try to be careful OK. Lastly i am a good guy.

2007-02-03 01:06:42 · answer #11 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers