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I mean Normans were Vikings who infact same as Anglo-Saxons, all Germanic tribes, so how did Normans become different to Anglo-Saxons in Britain and the talk of saying Normans had this impact and this, well infact they looked the same, spoke the same Language, same culture etc.

2007-01-31 07:13:38 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Cultures & Groups Other - Cultures & Groups

4 answers

I always thought that the Normans were French

2007-01-31 07:20:45 · answer #1 · answered by Shellie 3 · 0 2

Not even close to being the truth. While you are correct in saying Normans are decended from Vikings, saying they are the same is very misleading.

First of all, let's start with the fact that THE DID NOT SPEAK SPEAK THE SAME LANGUAGE! They spoke Norman-French, not the Old English that was spoken in Britain.

And while they may originally been Vikings, they had adapted to the French way of life a long time before they invaded Britain. Their culture had changed a lot, and they lost most of their Viking culture (though obviously not completely). By your definition, Americans are all still British because most speak English and follow British cultural norms.

By your definition, all of them are Germanic tribes, so everyone from England, France, Germany, Kansas, parts of Poland, Switzerland, and most of the rest of Europe are all one people.

As for your whole 'stock' idea, what you are calling Anglo-Saxon is actually wrong as well. British people genetically are very different from Germanic peoples from the mainland. Angles and Saxons invaded Britain, but the bulk of the genetic 'stock' comes from the original peoples of the British Isles (Irish, Welsh, Breton, Scottish, Pict, etc). The invaders did not destory the original populations, but rather they became the ruling class over them, and later intermixing of the two classes eliminated most of the Anglo-Saxon 'stock'. The human genome project has recently supported this.

Your idea that they all have the same culture and language is obviously mistaken. Not to say they aren't related, but your idea makes little sense either.

2007-01-31 07:37:52 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 2 1

NO, the Normans were of Viking stock who had conquered and populated the Normandy area of France. They had a different culture to the Anglo Saxon stock in England. In fact the Anglo-Saxon ideals in Britain were quite a bit more advanced towards our modern day thinking in many ways. They spoke French, the Saxons spoke old English. In fact there are two very good books, i can personally recommend that deal with this subject in some depth.
"THE YEAR 1000" by Robert Lacey & Danny Danziger published by Little Brown 1999. and also
"1066 The Year of The Three Battles" by Frank McLynn published by Pimlico 1998.
These two volumes will explain lots that i cant on here.

2007-01-31 07:33:19 · answer #3 · answered by freddiem 5 · 3 1

If you want to generalise,we all came out of Africa!

2007-02-01 00:17:59 · answer #4 · answered by aburobroy 2 · 0 0

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