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Proof of this can be written in a small space, which I will do at end of question period, if none are offered.

2007-01-31 06:25:34 · 4 answers · asked by Scythian1950 7 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

Okay, good answer guys, I should have said, "REAL irrational numbers a & b". Sorry about that.

2007-01-31 06:40:34 · update #1

4 answers

let b = √2, an irrational number
then let a^√2 = 2
therefore, a=2^(1/√2) = √2^√2
If √2^√2 is irrational, then we are done.
If √2^√2 is rational, then let a=√2 and b=√2 and we are done, since √2^√2 is rational.
(It just so happens that √2^√2 is irrational, but we dont need to prove that to prove the conjecture.)

2007-01-31 06:54:10 · answer #1 · answered by Scott R 6 · 3 1

enable b > 0 be irrational and placed f(x) = x^b for x >= 0. Then f is non-end, increasing and assumes each and every fee - so each and every irrational - in [0, oo). those irrationals type an uncountable set. because of the fact the set {x^b | x is rational} is countable, it would not incorporate all irrationals of [0, oo). for this reason, for some irrational a, a^b might desire to be irrational. i think of the classic Greeks knew cardinality.

2016-11-23 17:53:58 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

Euler showed that e^(i x pi) = -1

2007-01-31 06:31:48 · answer #3 · answered by davidosterberg1 6 · 0 0

A= i = sqrt(-1)
B= i = sqrt(-1)
i ^ i = e ^ (-pi/2) = .20788

2007-01-31 06:35:36 · answer #4 · answered by showtime 1 · 0 1

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