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Having a son was a sign of strength and continuity in the kingdom. A female had never held the seat until after Henry's sickly son died. Your dealling with the 1500s. Women were still regarded as 2nd class citizens. So to have one running the country... madness.

2007-01-31 02:44:46 · answer #1 · answered by gatewlkr 4 · 2 0

The order of succession in most European monarchical states is by primogeniture, meaning the eldest son of the monarch is first in line, followed by his male, then female siblings in order of age. Henry was afraid that if no male issue was alive to have the throne, the country would once again be plunged into war. The War of the Roses was not long over when Henry VIII became King. It was also considered, by some, that if a King could not produce a male heir it was a sign of weakness in the line, in the King and in the country. Henry VIII was a strong King, ruling his country well, and prospering it. He needed an heir, and was determined to do anything to get one.
The Act of Succession 1536 declared Henry's children by Queen Jane to be next in the line of succession, and declared both the Lady Mary and the Lady Elizabeth illegitimate, thus excluding them from the throne. The King was granted the power to further determine the line of succession in his will. Jane gave birth to a son, the Prince Edward, in 1537, but died two weeks later of puerperal fever. After Jane's death, the entire court mourned with Henry for some time. Henry also considered her to be his only "true" wife, being the only one who had given him the male heir he so desperately sought.In 1544, an Act of Parliament put them back in the line of succession after Edward, Prince of Wales, though they were still deemed illegitimate.

2007-01-31 10:55:26 · answer #2 · answered by aidan402 6 · 2 0

Sons are still preferred and take precedence in England over daughters. If Princesses Elizabeth and Margaret had had a younger brother, he would have inherited the throne and I am not talking Elizabeth I, but Elizabeth II.

It's only been in this generation that laws have been changed in several countries to allow the first born child, regardless of sex, to inherit the throne. I believe Sweden was the first.

In regards to Queen Mary Tudor, the attitudes were fairly correct. The first thing she did when she became queen was marry a Catholic prince. This gave Spain (a hated enemy) more control over the English court although it was limited.

Queen Elizabeth I had a lot of pressure on her in the early years to make a marriage alliance, but she fought it. The only way she could keep her power in that day and age was to stay unmarried and in control.

Most of the other ruling queens of England (Mary Stewart, Anne Stewart, and Elizabeth II) were married several years before becoming queen and not on the throne. Mary's husband, William of Orange, was her co-ruler. Anne's husband was dead, I think, before she took the throne. Elizabeth II has kept her husband more in the role of advisor. Queen Victoria WAS married while on the throne, but her hubby was not granted the title of king. He also acted as a very powerful advisor to the throne.

2007-01-31 10:47:34 · answer #3 · answered by loryntoo 7 · 2 0

Because back then a Queen could only run the country until she married, and then her husband the King would get to run it. This is why Elizabeth I never married - so she could retain control. Henry wanted his child to RULE.

2007-01-31 10:49:05 · answer #4 · answered by Queen of Cards 4 · 2 0

so his line would continual on the English thrown, for if his daughter married than the son of her husband would ascend the thrown in his stead. I know it seems ridiculous.

2007-01-31 10:49:32 · answer #5 · answered by sean e 4 · 2 0

he need a heir tio the throne to take over

2007-01-31 10:47:41 · answer #6 · answered by Lizzy 3 · 0 0

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