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2007-01-31 00:35:56 · 24 answers · asked by Anonymous in Pregnancy & Parenting Pregnancy

24 answers

Chances are slim to none! But durning sex there is pre*** but it is such a small amount I would not believe you could get pregnant on that only!!

2007-01-31 00:47:47 · answer #1 · answered by jewel64052 6 · 1 2

There is very little evidence to support the fact that a woman can get pregnant if a man doesn't ejaculate. A woman CANNOT get pregnant from pre-ejaculate as many people think. the ONLY way is from sperm, and she might get pregnant from pre-ejaculate if the man has ejaculated recently in the time of less than a day or two, and that's only because sperm residue would still reside inside. Pre-ejaculate does not contain enough sperm, if at all any, to actually make a woman pregnant. The only problem is if the man has a problem with premature ejaculation, then he will not know when he might come. I very much doubt a healthy man would have that problem unless he's an idiot or does it on purpose, and uses not knowing as an excuse. I have had sex with my girlfriend many times, and she never got pregnant. She doesn't use birth control pills because she says they are unhealthy. I personally only use condoms if I think I run a rick of getting a disease from someone. But of course, diseases don't come from nowhere, and at least ONE person must have something for the other to get. Two healthy people with no diseases will not have a risk of getting a sex-related disease.

2007-01-31 09:08:21 · answer #2 · answered by Dan M 1 · 1 0

Yes, a woman can get pregnant even when ejaculation doesn't occur within the vagina. This is because pre-ejaculation fluid may contain some sperm.

Withdrawal of the penis from the vagina before ejaculation is one of the oldest methods of birth control. But fewer than 3 percent of adults in the United States use it as their primary method of contraception. The failure (pregnancy) rate is high. About 20 percent to 25 percent of women who rely on the withdrawal method become pregnant each year.

2007-01-31 10:24:23 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

I am assuming, from the words used and the spelling, I am answering a younger person's question, so I will be as truthful but as sensitive to young minds as I can.

In Birth control circles, this is known as "Coitus interruptus", or "pulling out beforehand".

They have a name for persons who rely exclusively on this method of birth control. They call them "PARENTS".

If you insert an erect, uncondomed penis into a similarly unprotected vagina, where both participants are healthy, and engage in intercourse, the penis will begin "leaking" pre-seminal fluid into the vagina. This fluid is a mixture of semen, water, and SPERM. Not a lot of sperm, not like when the guy "comes" (the REAL word is ejaculate; stop listening to your buddies), but all it takes is one good swimmer and one receptive egg, being helped along by, well, let's just say enthusiastic thrusting.

You must wait until she should or does begin her menstrual cycle, to know whether she became pregnant or not. And from now on, I don't care how you love her or she loves you, always use a condom, until you ARE ready to be a parent, OK?

2007-01-31 08:56:02 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

No.
Sorry to disappoint so many but pre-ejaculate does not contain enough viable sperm to impregnate anyone.
This fact has been proven over and over again and yet the old wives tale continues. Eventually people will catch on.
Lady T~

2007-01-31 09:20:59 · answer #5 · answered by Lady Trinity 5 · 0 0

Yes, a woman can get pregnant even if a man doesn't ejaculate.Small amounts of sperm can still escape without the couple being aware of it. So better to be safe then sorry. If she is already sorry then get her to take the morning after pill available in Pharmacies over the counter.

2007-01-31 08:47:11 · answer #6 · answered by sleep well 2 · 0 1

To become pregnant there does have to be some sort of ejaculation so if nothing was released then there can not be a pregnancy. That being said you could have released without knowing in small portions before the mass ejaculation occurred.

2007-01-31 08:48:37 · answer #7 · answered by bdough15 6 · 0 1

Answer is YES
Better use something next time! Have a check with your Doctor in about 1 month Good Luck
G'Day

2007-01-31 08:47:49 · answer #8 · answered by Aussie1 2 · 0 1

Absolutely! Pre-Ejaculation,,so be careful if your using the pull out method,my girlfriend had a child with that method.

2007-01-31 10:16:13 · answer #9 · answered by grmat 4 · 0 0

Yes. Even though he doesn't ejaculate, there are still some sperm hanging about in the seminal fluid prior to that. It's only a few, but it only takes one to get pregnant.

Been there, done that.

2007-01-31 08:49:26 · answer #10 · answered by S. W 4 · 0 1

pre-*** is the same thing, if he didnt do either (which might be hard for either of you to tell because not all men know when the are pre cumming) you would be fine, but if he did pre *** then you should wait and take a test. always use a condom if you arent ready to have a baby.

2007-01-31 09:04:56 · answer #11 · answered by puppy love 6 · 1 1

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