2007-01-31 00:35:12 · 5 answers · asked by haley 1 in Health ➔ Women's Health
No
2007-01-31 00:59:40 · answer #1 · answered by JS 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
A clinician can tell if a woman has had sex without a condom in the past few days, if s/he does an internal exam, and looks at a specimen of the vaginal discharge. There will be sperm there.
This is routinely done at the first prenatal visit -- not to check on her sexual activity, but to screen for infections. A slide is not looked at again unless the woman complains of a problem.
If you are NOT having sex, no, s/he won't know that by examining you. S/he would only know that that were no sperm there on that particular day. And that could also mean a condom was used.
2007-01-31 09:46:30 · answer #2 · answered by who me? 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no way can a doctor differentiate a sexully active person from one who is not. A doctor can only tell whether a woman has started sexual activity or not yet started .
2007-01-31 09:39:18 · answer #3 · answered by nila 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
i doubt it. why wouldn't she be sexually active though? is there a problem? man run off? sex during pregnancy is good!
2007-01-31 08:59:13 · answer #4 · answered by Emily E 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
no not at all.
2007-01-31 09:44:08 · answer #5 · answered by wartytoadjody39 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋