12 hurs
2007-01-30 21:02:17 · 8 answers · asked by dungar 1 in Sports ➔ Football ➔ Other - Football
It's not "Lack of shoes". It's about "Not wearning proper foot wear". It has nothing to do with money.
It was because these guys were more used to playing with their uncovered legs than with sport shoes.
2007-01-30 21:10:51 · answer #1 · answered by jaggie_c 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
First of all check the spellings of ur questions.
Indians were not allowed to play football due to lack of shoes and this was asked yesterday on TV - Kaun Banega Crorepati.
2007-01-30 21:08:23 · answer #2 · answered by sweetie 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because they did not have shoes. They were not allowed to play barefeet in the FIFA World Cup '50.
2007-01-31 03:09:34 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Hey dude it was beacause of "Lack of proper foot ware" which FIFA did not allow them to play on the ground with bare foot.. WOKEY
2007-01-30 21:21:42 · answer #4 · answered by Metal theory 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because of lack of proper footwear
2007-01-30 21:15:34 · answer #5 · answered by abha c 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
.indians had footwears bt they dont want 2 play wearin footwears na fifa didnt allow them 2 play without them.dats y
2007-01-30 22:03:10 · answer #6 · answered by mauli 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
hi!!
i think i know what you mean friend!!
actually the indian soccer team qualified for world cup 1950 but didnot play because they didnot have studs(boots) .Indians were used to playing barefooted but they had to wear studs but were not used to it so they got disqualified!!
cheers and god bless:-)
2007-01-31 02:00:36 · answer #7 · answered by mink 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
because of lack of footwear
2007-02-03 20:05:09 · answer #8 · answered by mitul goel 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋