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They settled in Indian nations where they were not citizens, and refused to leave, right? Then they saturated the place.

2007-01-30 11:57:20 · 3 answers · asked by Davin M 1 in Arts & Humanities History

3 answers

This is the argument of the historically illiterate.

1. In order for something to be ILLEGAL it is implied that there are extablished laws which can then be broken.

2. When the Pilgrims came to America in 1620 there was no civilization (historians do NOT consider the Native American tribes living here a civilization.)

3. One of the requirements of a civilization is a codified standard of laws. Since there were none, there was nothing illegal, and since nothing was illegal there could not be any illegal immigration.

This is a moronic question and if you have a hispanic school teacher posing this tripe they should be reported to the local newspaper and exposed for making their classes dumber for being around them. Please print out this statement and give it to your teacher. I am a scholarly educator, not a poorly-read rabble rouser with poor thinking skills.

2007-01-31 16:41:35 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Yeah, because they didn't have passports or visas. Why don't you remove emotionalism from the study of history. If your teacher posed this question to you demand that the school board remove them from a teaching postion because he or she does not have a clue. If it is your theory, then learn about the formation of governments and laws. Native Americans were not citizens of a nation, but members of a tribe with no written laws nor constitution and also had no concept of the ownership of private property. There is a difference.

Taking your argument to its end, then the Neolithic peoples which came over the land bridge from Siberia through Alaska were also illegal immigrants.

2007-01-31 12:56:02 · answer #2 · answered by mklee05091953 2 · 0 0

Noooo! They weren't

2007-01-30 22:59:04 · answer #3 · answered by Scottish Dachsy 5 · 0 0

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