I know that any number to the power of zero equals one, is this the same for variables? My problem is: (6x^2y^3)^0
The answer I got is: 1, please tell me the answer to my question, and if my answer to the problem is right.
2007-01-30 09:06:00 · 7 answers · asked by a-jay 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
yes, ANYTHING, including variables, to the 0 power is 1. and you are right.
2007-01-30 09:17:00 · answer #1 · answered by ♥♥♥♥♥ 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The rule is a^0 = 1, so anything to the 0 power is 1, including variables. If you wanted you could distributed the power as such:
(6x^2)^0 (y^3)^0, then you would have (6^0)(x^2)^0(y^3)^0.
Well 6^0 = 1, (x^2)^0 = 1, and (y^3)^0 = 1, and 1 x 1 x 1 = 1
2007-01-30 17:48:09 · answer #2 · answered by danjlil_43515 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The answer is 1 for all x and y not equal to 0.
If x or y equals 0 the problem is undefined since 0^0 is undefined.
(x^2)^0=x^(2*0)=x^0=1, when x not equal to 0
2007-01-30 17:20:41 · answer #3 · answered by thouc 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes,
(a^b)^c = a^(b*c)
x^(2*0) = x^0
Still 1.
2007-01-30 17:12:52 · answer #4 · answered by bequalming 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yup cuz variables are technically numbers too except you don't know their value.
2007-01-30 17:14:01 · answer #5 · answered by axbrokenxsmile 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Do your own homework
2007-01-30 17:13:41 · answer #6 · answered by dsmarisen 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
thouc is correct.
2007-01-30 17:23:12 · answer #7 · answered by Jerry P 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋