2007-01-30 02:30:48 · 13 answers · asked by scambuster 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
Our Country was built on Taxes! The Founding fathers' said "hey if they'll pay England then they'll pay us"!
2007-01-30 02:35:30 · answer #1 · answered by Celeste P 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
The only people legally liable for the federal income tax are residents of Washington DC, federal employees, resident (legal) aliens working within the U.S. and those living and working in U.S. possessions. All these are directly under the jurisdiction of the U.S. Congress and Title 26 USC applies. However, although not at first legally liable, residents of the 49 states who first sign up with the system by signing a W-4 and filing their first return, are assumed by the IRS to have "volunteered". The IRS manual is clear, "based on voluntary assessment and voluntary compliance" BUT... the part they don't tell you, when you sign up you forfeit all constitutional rights and are bound to follow the (civil) IRS code. Some who have questioned this in court have won hands down… see U.S. vs Lloyd Long, and punch up Lawrence Becraft, an Alabama tax attorney the IRS will no longer meet in court, because he always wins… There is in fact no ironclad law covering all wage earners in the 49 states.
2007-01-30 03:38:58 · answer #2 · answered by Gunny T 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I agree with Gunner T. Most Americans waive their constitutional when they file a 1040 thinking it's mandatory to pay a tax. That's why I never volunteered to pay this tax and will remain for the rest of my life - a nontaxpayer!
2007-01-30 04:25:37 · answer #3 · answered by Jerry H 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Get a copy of a tax code book...and look up the '861' tax code. Most tax preparers don't even know it exists! And yes...many people have gone to jail and lost everything when trying to use the government's own tax code against them. Be very careful if you pursue this!
2007-01-30 03:20:00 · answer #4 · answered by TexasRose 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
the 1st regulation that enacted the earnings tax after the sixteenth modification grew to become into ratified grew to become into the sales Act of 1913. i've got appropriate to the wikipedia article on it. on the grounds that then the guidelines on earnings tax have been further to, replaced, changed many cases. you will discover present day regulation by using looking in the U. S. Code, call 26.
2016-11-23 14:01:45 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Evidently it does not exist. Consider what is happening to the Browns in NH. They asked the IRS for the law, and were attacked by a swat team and hauled to court. It would have been much easier and cheaper to just cite the law it it existed, so presumably it doesn't. However those guys carry guns, and do not play nice, so pay their bribe to stay out of jail.
2007-01-30 03:10:26 · answer #6 · answered by hasse_john 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Yes, it was passed in 1913 after the 16th Amendment. Do a search for "US income tax" in wikipedia and you'll find everything you need to know.
2007-01-30 02:48:44 · answer #7 · answered by Aegis of Freedom 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
You'll find much debate about this issue. Most commenly the argument of the legal ratification of the 16th amendment will come into play.
http://www.wealth4freedom.com/16thHistory.htm
2007-01-30 02:49:18 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It's an amendment in the Constitution
2007-01-30 03:24:46 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
LAWS WE DON'T NEED ANY STINKING LAWS WE ARE THE IRS.
BE PREPARED TO BE AUDITED.
IRS is the only group than when they come for you better get a hold of your lugs nuts.
Capone murder a lot of people but he couldn't avoid the IRS.
2007-01-30 02:37:53 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋