Neither. I (as a lawyer) would say:-
'This agreement shall be for a period of twelve months commencing on 1st January 2007. and expiring on 31 December 2007'
2007-01-30 00:02:43
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answer #1
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answered by rdenig_male 7
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Why not just skip "as set":
The term of this Agreement shall be 1 (one) year starting 1 January 2007 and ending 31 December 2007.
-MM
2007-01-30 03:47:22
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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The term of this agreement shall commence on January 1 (the first) of the year 2007 and expire on December 31 (thirty-one) of the year 2007. (do not specify the term "one year" as that can be misinterpretted in a court of law as meaning a certain number of days and be misconstrued by facts at a later date).
2007-01-30 00:01:38
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answer #3
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answered by theartisttwin 5
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The term of this Agreement shall be set as 1 (one) year from ..
2007-01-29 23:55:24
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answer #4
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answered by snjl67 2
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The term of this Agreement shall be set as 1 (one) year from ....
2007-01-30 00:56:34
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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The second one is more grammatically correct and therefore sounds smoother and clearer. However, I agree with "rdenig_ma" that it is still not as clear and legally specific as woring that specifies the starting and ending dates or uses "12 months, beginning with January 1" and so on without using the word "year" which can have various starting times and lengths in different contexts.
2007-01-30 00:29:57
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answer #6
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answered by GwennysGranny 2
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The second one.
2007-01-29 23:55:03
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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The first.It gives more of a connotation of a one year lease.
2007-01-29 23:58:46
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answer #8
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answered by ahem 2
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Second.
2007-01-29 23:56:21
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answer #9
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answered by ♥ fArA ♥ 2
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The first one, it sounds better for people who need it spelled out for them.
2007-01-29 23:55:04
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answer #10
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answered by Krysta 1
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